The nurse is obtaining an obstetrical history on a currently pregnant woman. The client has an 18-month-old daughter who was delivered 2 days after estimated due date and a 3-year-old son who was born at 35 weeks' gestation. Before her son was born, she lost two pregnancies: one at 10 weeks and the other at 22 weeks. Using the GTPAL method, how would the nurse record this history?
G5 T1 P2 A1 L2
G5 T2 P2 A1 L2
G4 T1 P2 A2 L2
G4 T1 P1 A2 L2
The Correct Answer is A
A) G5 T1 P2 A1 L2:
G (Gravida): Gravida refers to the total number of pregnancies, including the current pregnancy. In this case, the woman is currently pregnant and has had 4 previous pregnancies (one miscarriage at 10 weeks, one at 22 weeks, and two live births). Therefore, her Gravida (G) is 5.
T (Term births): Term births are those that occur at or after 37 weeks of gestation. The woman delivered an 18-month-old daughter who was born 2 days after her due date, which is a term birth. Thus, her Term (T) is 1.
P (Preterm births): Preterm births occur between 20 and 36 weeks of gestation. The woman had a son born at 35 weeks, which is classified as a preterm birth. Therefore, the Preterm (P) is 2.
A (Abortions or miscarriages): Abortions refer to pregnancies that ended before 20 weeks of gestation. The woman experienced two miscarriages, one at 10 weeks and one at 22 weeks. Thus, the Abortions (A) is 1.
L (Living children): Living children are those who are currently alive. The woman has a 3-year-old son and an 18-month-old daughter, so the Living (L) is 2.
Thus, the correct GTPAL classification is G5 T1 P2 A1 L2.
B) G5 T2 P2 A1 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman had only one term birth (not two). She delivered her daughter at term, but the son was preterm (born at 35 weeks). Therefore, her Term (T) should be 1, not 2.
C) G4 T1 P2 A2 L2:
This is incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Additionally, the woman had 1 abortion, not 2.
D) G4 T1 P1 A2 L2:
This is also incorrect because the woman is currently pregnant, so her Gravida (G) is 5, not 4. Furthermore, the woman had 2 preterm births, not 1.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B"]
Explanation
A) Ask the client to empty their bladder:
One of the first actions the nurse should take when the uterus is not firm (often referred to as uterine atony) is to ask the client to empty their bladder. A full bladder can interfere with uterine contraction and cause the uterus to be boggy or soft, which can lead to postpartum hemorrhage. Encouraging the client to void may help the uterus contract more effectively and reduce the risk of complications.
B) Perform fundal massage:
If the uterus is not firm, performing a fundal massage is essential. Fundal massage helps stimulate uterine contractions and helps the uterus contract to its normal size, reducing the risk of bleeding. It is a critical intervention in postpartum care to ensure that the uterus remains firm and does not become atonic, which can cause excessive blood loss.
C) Nothing, this is an expected finding:
A soft uterus (uterine atony) is not an expected finding 4 hours postpartum. A firm uterus is expected at this point to prevent hemorrhage. The nurse should take immediate action to address the issue of uterine atony, as failure to do so can lead to significant postpartum hemorrhage, a life-threatening complication.
D) Ambulate the client in the hallway:
Ambulation may be helpful later in the postpartum period to encourage circulation and prevent thromboembolism, but it is not a priority when the uterus is not firm. The first priority is to address uterine atony, and actions like emptying the bladder and massaging the fundus should be performed before ambulating the client.
E) Give pain medications:
While pain management is important, it is not the priority intervention when the uterus is not firm. The nurse must first address the cause of uterine atony (such as bladder distention) and stimulate uterine contractions via fundal massage to ensure that the uterus is firm and the client is not at risk for excessive bleeding. Pain medications can be given once the immediate uterine concerns have been addressed.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Flexion:
Flexion is a movement where the fetal head bends forward during labor, which allows the smallest diameter of the head to pass through the birth canal. It is an important part of the labor process but does not refer to the initial descent of the fetus into the pelvis. Flexion typically occurs once the fetus begins to descend into the pelvis.
B) Engagement:
Engagement refers to the initial descent of the fetal head into the pelvis and the passage of the largest part of the fetal head (the biparietal diameter) into the maternal pelvis. This occurs when the fetal head reaches zero station at the level of the ischial spines and is the first cardinal movement of labor. It marks the point at which the presenting part of the fetus enters the pelvic inlet and begins the process of descent.
C) Extension:
Extension is the movement of the fetal head as it exits the birth canal after engagement and descent. The head moves from a flexed position (chin to chest) to an extended position (chin moving away from the chest) as it passes through the birth canal. This movement occurs after engagement and is a part of the expulsion phase, not the initial descent.
D) Expulsion:
Expulsion is the final phase of labor, which occurs after the fetal head has been delivered. It involves the delivery of the rest of the body (shoulders, torso, and legs) following the birth of the head. This is the final cardinal movement, which takes place after engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, and external rotation.
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