The nurse is involved in a health promotion program for teenagers related to the prevention of oral cancer. Which behaviors would the nurse explain as increasing the risk for oral cancer? Select all that apply.
Chewing gum
Chewing tobacco
Drinking carbonated beverages
Excessive consumption of red meats
Excessive drinking of alcohol
Correct Answer : B,E
Choice A reason: Chewing gum does not increase the risk of oral cancer. It is generally considered safe and may even promote oral health by stimulating saliva production.
Choice B reason: Chewing tobacco is a significant risk factor for oral cancer. The harmful chemicals in tobacco can damage the cells in the mouth and lead to cancerous changes.
Choice C reason: Drinking carbonated beverages is not linked to an increased risk of oral cancer. However, excessive consumption might contribute to other health issues such as dental erosion and gastrointestinal discomfort.
Choice D reason: Excessive consumption of red meats is more closely associated with an increased risk of colorectal cancer rather than oral cancer. While a balanced diet is important, red meat is not a primary risk factor for oral cancer.
Choice E reason: Excessive drinking of alcohol is a known risk factor for oral cancer. Alcohol can irritate the cells in the mouth and increase the likelihood of developing cancerous lesions, especially when combined with tobacco use.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Informed consent must be obtained by the physician before the procedure to ensure the patient understands the risks, benefits, and alternatives.
Choice B reason: Obtaining coagulation studies is essential to assess the patient's bleeding risk before a biopsy, which involves puncturing tissue and can cause bleeding.
Choice C reason: Administering diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is not typically required for a kidney biopsy. Pre-medications may be prescribed based on individual patient needs, but it is not a standard practice.
Choice D reason: A urine specimen is necessary to check for existing infections or abnormalities before the biopsy is performed.
Choice E reason: Maintaining NPO (nothing by mouth) status prior to the procedure helps reduce the risk of aspiration during sedation or anesthesia.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Oliguria is defined as a significantly reduced urine output, typically less than 400-500 ml per day in adults. A urinary output of 350 ml/day falls well below this threshold, indicating a condition of oliguria. This reduced output can be a sign of underlying issues such as dehydration, renal failure, or urinary tract obstructions. It is essential for healthcare providers to identify and address the cause of oliguria to prevent further complications.
Choice B reason: A urinary output of 450 ml/day is also indicative of oliguria but is closer to the higher end of the threshold for this condition. However, the specified definition usually considers less than 400 ml/day as oliguria, making 350 ml/day a more definitive example. While 450 ml/day is still reduced and warrants attention, it is slightly above the typical clinical cutoff for oliguria.
Choice C reason: A urinary output of 550 ml/day is above the typical threshold for oliguria. It indicates reduced urine output but does not meet the clinical definition of oliguria. Such output may still require monitoring, but it does not classify as oliguria, which is generally defined as less than 400-500 ml per day.
Choice D reason: A urinary output of 650 ml/day is well above the threshold for oliguria. This output is closer to normal daily urine output, which typically ranges from 800 to 2000 ml/day, depending on fluid intake and other factors. Therefore, it does not indicate oliguria and would be considered within normal limits or slightly reduced, depending on the clinical context.
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