The nurse is evaluating the outcome of the treatment goals for a client with heart failure.
Which of the following would be the best query for the nurse to ask?
How has your energy level been?
How many pillows are you using to sleep?
Have you been exercising regularly?
Have you had any chest pain?.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Assessing energy levels provides indirect information about cardiac output but lacks specificity regarding fluid overload or pulmonary congestion, which are key indicators of heart failure exacerbation. It is a relevant question but not the best for evaluating treatment outcomes.
Choice B rationale
Asking about pillow use evaluates orthopnea, a common symptom of heart failure due to fluid buildup in the lungs when lying flat. It provides a direct assessment of fluid status and the effectiveness of heart failure management, making it the best question.
Choice C rationale
Exercising regularly is an important lifestyle aspect for heart failure patients but does not directly assess the status of symptoms such as fluid overload or cardiac function. Thus, it is not the most critical outcome measure.
Choice D rationale
Chest pain can indicate ischemia or worsening cardiac function but is not specific to fluid status or pulmonary congestion in heart failure. Therefore, it is a relevant but less optimal question for evaluating treatment goals.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Corticosteroids are used in thrombocytopenia because they suppress the immune response, particularly in immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP). They reduce platelet destruction by inhibiting autoantibody formation and increasing platelet lifespan. Normal platelet count ranges from 150,000 to 400,000/µL. Thrombocytopenia occurs when platelets drop below 150,000/µL, increasing bleeding risk. Corticosteroids can also decrease capillary permeability, minimizing petechiae and ecchymoses.
Choice B rationale
Diphenhydramine, an antihistamine, is used for allergic reactions but has no role in treating thrombocytopenia. It does not address the underlying immune or hematologic causes of low platelet counts. Its primary actions include H1 receptor antagonism, reducing histamine-mediated symptoms like itching and swelling. However, it lacks immunosuppressive or hematologic-stimulating effects essential for managing thrombocytopenia.
Choice C rationale
Desmopressin (DDAVP) is a synthetic antidiuretic hormone analog used for certain bleeding disorders like von Willebrand disease or mild hemophilia A. It increases factor VIII and von Willebrand factor levels, improving clotting. However, it is not indicated for thrombocytopenia as it does not address platelet count deficiencies or immune-mediated platelet destruction.
Choice D rationale
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is a thiazide diuretic used for hypertension and edema. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal tubule, promoting diuresis. HCTZ has no effect on platelet counts or immune mechanisms and is not used in thrombocytopenia. Its side effects, like electrolyte imbalances, may complicate patient management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Edema of the lower extremities suggests right-sided heart failure, not left ventricular failure. Fluid backs up into systemic circulation in right-sided failure, while left-sided failure primarily affects pulmonary circulation. Differentiating between these conditions is essential for targeted management.
Choice B rationale
Pulmonary crackles result from fluid accumulation in alveoli due to left ventricular failure, where decreased cardiac output causes blood to back up into pulmonary vasculature. Crackles indicate pulmonary congestion or edema. Prompt identification aids in early intervention. Normal respiratory assessment excludes crackles.
Choice C rationale
Ascites is more indicative of chronic right-sided heart failure or liver disease, not acute left ventricular failure. Ascites results from systemic venous congestion, which is less common in isolated left-sided heart failure. Differentiating causes helps refine diagnostic focus.
Choice D rationale
Jugular vein distention is associated with elevated central venous pressure, typical of right-sided heart failure or combined heart failure. It does not specifically characterize left ventricular failure. Accurate recognition of findings ensures precise diagnosis and management.
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