The nurse is conducting an assessment on a patient suspected of having a stroke. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a stroke?
Facial droop
Dysrhythmias
Periorbital edema
Projectile vomiting
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Facial droop is a classic symptom of stroke. It occurs when there’s weakness or paralysis on one side of the face, which is caused by a disruption in the nerve signals due to a stroke. This can be easily observed in the person’s smile, as it will appear uneven.
Choice B rationale
While dysrhythmias can be associated with stroke, they are not the most indicative symptom. Dysrhythmias are more commonly associated with heart conditions.
Choice C rationale
Periorbital edema, or swelling around the eyes, is not typically a symptom of stroke. It can be caused by various conditions such as allergies, infections, or kidney problems.
Choice D rationale
Projectile vomiting is not typically a symptom of stroke. It can be caused by various conditions such as gastrointestinal issues, brain tumors, or increased intracranial pressure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice B rationale
Patients who experience severe cluster headaches should be instructed to take medications as soon as they sense the onset of symptoms. Cluster headaches are characterized by severe, debilitating pain that reaches peak intensity within a short period of time, often within 15 minutes. Therefore, early intervention is crucial to manage the pain effectively.
Choice A rationale
Waiting twenty to thirty minutes after the onset of symptoms to take medications may not be effective for cluster headaches. The pain of a cluster headache often reaches peak intensity within 15 minutes, so delaying medication could result in unnecessary suffering.
Choice C rationale
Waiting until the patient’s pain becomes unbearable is not recommended for managing cluster headaches. The goal of treatment is to prevent or reduce pain, not to wait until it becomes unbearable.
Choice D rationale
Taking medications when the patient senses their symptoms are peaking is not the most effective strategy for managing cluster headaches. Given the rapid onset and severe pain associated with cluster headaches, medications should be taken as soon as the patient senses the onset of symptoms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Status epilepticus is a medical emergency characterized by continuous or rapid-fire seizures. Intravenous diazepam is one of the first-line treatments for this condition. It works by enhancing the effect of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA), a neurotransmitter that inhibits brain activity, thereby helping to stop the seizure.
Choice B rationale
Oral lorazepam is not typically used to halt a seizure immediately due to its slower onset of action compared to intravenous administration.
Choice C rationale
Oral phenytoin is not typically used to halt a seizure immediately. It is more commonly used for the long-term management of seizures.
Choice D rationale
Intravenous phenobarbital is a second-line treatment for status epilepticus, used when first- line treatments such as diazepam are ineffective.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.