The nurse is caring for a primigravida client who delivered vaginally 48-hours ago.The client's laboratory results are: hemoglobin 12 g/dL (125 g/L), hematocrit 34% (0.34 volume fraction), hepatitis B surface antigen negative, rubella non-immune, group B Streptococcus negative. Which prescription should the nurse prepare to administer?

Blood transfusion.

Rubella vaccination.

Penicillin G potassium.

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

The client has a hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL and a hematocrit of 34%, which are within normal ranges for a postpartum woman. A blood transfusion is typically indicated for severe anemia or significant blood loss, neither of which is suggested by these lab results. Therefore, a blood transfusion is not warranted in this case.

Choice B rationale

Rubella vaccination is indicated for a client who is non-immune to rubella, as indicated by the laboratory results. Rubella vaccination is important to protect the client from contracting rubella in future pregnancies, which can cause serious congenital defects. Since the client is not currently pregnant and not immune, vaccination can be safely administered postpartum to prevent future rubella infections.

Choice C rationale

Penicillin G potassium is an antibiotic that might be used for a client who is group B Streptococcus positive to prevent neonatal infection during delivery. However, this client is group B Streptococcus negative, so there is no indication for this antibiotic. There is no need to administer Penicillin G potassium in this scenario.

Choice D rationale

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin is used for newborns of mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive to prevent perinatal transmission of the virus. Since the client's lab results indicate she is hepatitis B surface antigen negative, there is no need for Hepatitis B immunoglobulin. The client and her newborn are not at risk of hepatitis B transmission, so this intervention is not required. .

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Reduction of fever is not the primary goal of albumin therapy. Albumin's role in nephrotic syndrome is to manage severe edema, not to reduce fever, which might be managed by antipyretics if present.

Choice B rationale

Weight gain is typically undesirable in nephrotic syndrome patients due to fluid retention and edema. Albumin therapy aims to reduce edema, potentially decreasing weight as fluid balance improves.

Choice C rationale

Albumin infusion helps reduce edema by increasing plasma oncotic pressure, drawing fluid back into the vascular system. A reduction in edema indicates the therapy’s effectiveness in managing nephrotic syndrome symptoms.

Choice D rationale

Improved caloric intake is not directly affected by albumin infusion. While managing edema might improve overall well-being, albumin’s primary function in this context is fluid balance and reducing swelling.

A. Maternal blood pressure. B. Level of pain sensation. C. Station of presenting part. D. Variability of fetal heart rate.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Maternal blood pressure is crucial to monitor post-epidural anesthesia, as hypotension is a common side effect. Prompt detection and management of low blood pressure are vital to ensuring maternal and fetal well-being, making this the most important assessment.

Choice B rationale

Monitoring pain sensation helps determine the effectiveness of the epidural and the level of anesthesia. However, it is secondary to monitoring for hypotension, which can have more immediate and severe consequences.

Choice C rationale

The station of the presenting part is important for labor progression assessment but not as critical as monitoring for hypotension, which can significantly impact both the mother and fetus.

Choice D rationale

Fetal heart rate variability is vital, but immediate maternal hypotension management takes precedence, as it directly affects fetal oxygenation. .

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Albumin 25% IV is prescribed for a child with nephrotic syndrome. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is having the desired effect?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Which is the most important assessment for the nurse to conduct following the administration of epidural anesthesia to a client who is at 40-weeks gestation?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is preparing to administer oxytocin IV to a client after the delivery of her infant. Which outcome should the nurse expect from the administration of oxytocin?

During the admission process of a school-age child, the child states, "I'm going to have an operation.”. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this child?

The nurse is caring for a child with a unilateral long-leg cast applied for the correction of clubfoot. Which action is most important for the nurse to perform?

A preschool-aged child who is experiencing respiratory distress is brought to the emergency department by the parents.The child is anxious, has a temperature of 102.8°F (39.3°C), and is drooling from the mouth while leaning forward when sitting. Which action should the nurse implement next?

The nurse is providing preconception counseling. Which supplement should the nurse recommend to help prevent the occurrence of anencephaly?

Which drink choice on a hot day indicates to the nurse that an adolescent with sickle cell anemia understands dietary considerations related to the disease?

A child who weighs 25 kg receives a prescription for isoniazid 10 mg/kg/day by mouth once a day. The bottle is labeled "isoniazid Oral Solution, USP 50 mg per 5 mL.”. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Enter numerical value only. If rounding is required, round to the nearest whole number.)