The nurse is caring for a patient receiving treatment for a hemolytic reaction from a mismatched blood transfusion. The nurse understands that this the incompatible blood is causing what?
Malformed RBCs
A deficiency in vitamin B12
An abundance of immature RBCS
Destruction of RBCs
The Correct Answer is D
A. Malformed RBCs: Malformed RBCs are not caused by a transfusion reaction; they are generally a result of bone marrow abnormalities or genetic conditions.
B. A deficiency in vitamin B12: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia, not hemolysis. It is unrelated to transfusion reactions.
C. An abundance of immature RBCs: Immature RBCs, or reticulocytes, can increase as a compensatory response to anemia but are not a direct result of a transfusion reaction. The primary issue is RBC destruction.
D. Destruction of RBCs: A hemolytic reaction occurs when the immune system attacks incompatible red blood cells, leading to their destruction.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Contact the surgeon to obtain orders for a nebulizer treatment from respiratory therapy. A nebulizer is typically not the initial intervention for mild post-operative pain or mild respiratory discomfort due to pain with inspiration.
B. Provide the patient with a heating pad alternated with a cold pack for incisional pain. While heat or cold therapy can help with pain, opioid pain management with encouragement to perform deep breathing exercises is more effective for post-splenectomy patients.
C. Medicate with opioids for pain and assist the patient to deep breathe, cough, and ambulate. Pain management combined with encouraging deep breathing, coughing, and early ambulation helps prevent post-operative complications like atelectasis and pneumonia, which are common after abdominal surgeries.
D. Contact the surgeon to request a chest x-ray and a laboratory draw for CBC with differential. This intervention might be necessary if there were signs of infection or other complications, but mild pain with inspiration on the first day post-op does not typically warrant imaging or labs.
Correct Answer is ["28"]
Explanation
Flowrate= Total volume ml×Drop factor÷Time
= (1000 × 10) ÷ 360
= 27.78
≈ 28 gtt/min
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
