The nurse is caring for a patient receiving treatment for a hemolytic reaction from a mismatched blood transfusion. The nurse understands that this the incompatible blood is causing what?

Malformed RBCs

A deficiency in vitamin B12

An abundance of immature RBCS

Destruction of RBCs

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Malformed RBCs: Malformed RBCs are not caused by a transfusion reaction; they are generally a result of bone marrow abnormalities or genetic conditions.

B. A deficiency in vitamin B12: Vitamin B12 deficiency causes megaloblastic anemia, not hemolysis. It is unrelated to transfusion reactions.

C. An abundance of immature RBCs: Immature RBCs, or reticulocytes, can increase as a compensatory response to anemia but are not a direct result of a transfusion reaction. The primary issue is RBC destruction.

D. Destruction of RBCs: A hemolytic reaction occurs when the immune system attacks incompatible red blood cells, leading to their destruction.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Results indicate the presence of Reed Sternberg cells: Reed-Sternberg cells are a defining characteristic of Hodgkin disease, a type of lymphoma. Their presence in biopsy samples confirms the diagnosis, distinguishing Hodgkin disease from other types of lymphomas and leukemias.

B. The patient is cyanotic: Cyanosis, or bluish skin discoloration due to low oxygen levels, is not a common sign of Hodgkin disease. It may occur in advanced disease due to respiratory compromise but is not a defining characteristic.

C. The patient is complaining of excessive thirst and hunger: Excessive thirst and hunger are more characteristic of diabetes mellitus, not Hodgkin disease. These symptoms are unrelated to the lymphatic involvement seen in Hodgkin disease.

D. Results indicate the presence of the Philadelphia chromosome: The Philadelphia chromosome is a genetic abnormality associated with chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML), not Hodgkin disease. Its presence suggests a different hematologic malignancy.

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction."

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "Aplastic anemia results from decreased bone marrow production of RBCs." Aplastic anemia is characterized by the failure of bone marrow to produce adequate red blood cells (RBCs), white blood cells, and platelets. This results in pancytopenia, which increases the risk of infections, anemia, and bleeding.

B. "Aplastic anemia is directly related to impaired liver function." Aplastic anemia is not related to liver function; it originates from the bone marrow’s inability to produce sufficient blood cells.

C. "Aplastic anemia is associated with the decreased intake of iron." Aplastic anemia is not caused by iron deficiency; it is primarily due to bone marrow failure. Iron deficiency anemia, on the other hand, results from a lack of iron intake or absorption.

D. "Aplastic anemia results in an increased rate of RBC destruction." Increased RBC destruction is characteristic of hemolytic anemia, not aplastic anemia.

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The nurse is caring for a patient receiving treatment for a hemolytic reaction from a mismatched blood transfusion. The nurse understands that this the incompatible blood is causing what?

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