The nurse is caring for a client with stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which interpretation should the nurse make about the client's glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
Severely decreased GFR.
Mildly decreased GFR.
Kidney damage with increased GFR.
Moderately decreased GFR.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Severely decreased GFR:
In stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is indeed severely decreased. Stage 4 CKD is characterized by a GFR between 15 and 29 mL/min/1.73 m² according to the Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (KDOQI) guidelines. At this stage, there is significant kidney damage, resulting in a substantial reduction in kidney function and GFR. Clients with stage 4 CKD require close monitoring and management to prevent further progression of kidney disease and associated complications.
B. Mildly decreased GFR:
This choice is incorrect. Stage 4 CKD is not associated with a mildly decreased GFR. A mildly decreased GFR would typically be indicative of earlier stages of CKD. In stage 4 CKD, the reduction in GFR is severe, falling below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
C. Kidney damage with increased GFR:
This interpretation is inaccurate. In stage 4 CKD, kidney damage leads to a progressive decline in GFR, rather than an increase. An increased GFR is not typical of advanced CKD stages; instead, it may occur in conditions such as hyperfiltration in early stages of diabetic nephropathy.
D. Moderately decreased GFR:
This option is also incorrect. Stage 4 CKD is not associated with a moderately decreased GFR. A moderately decreased GFR would typically be indicative of stage 3 CKD, where the GFR ranges from 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m². In stage 4 CKD, the reduction in GFR is more severe, falling below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Gout is a form of inflammatory arthritis characterized by sudden, severe attacks of pain, redness, and swelling in the joints, commonly affecting the big toe joint (first metatarsophalangeal joint). The primary pathophysiological process underlying gout involves the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the joints and surrounding tissues. Here's an explanation of why option A is the correct answer:
A) Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation:
Correct. Elevated levels of uric acid in the blood can lead to the formation of monosodium urate crystals, which then accumulate in the synovial fluid of joints, particularly in the big toe joint in many cases. These crystals trigger an inflammatory response, activating immune cells and causing swelling, redness, warmth, and severe pain in the affected joint. The inflammation and irritation result from the body's response to the presence of these crystals.
B) Chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes and joint inflammation:
This option describes a process more characteristic of osteoarthritis, where degeneration of joint cartilage leads to inflammation and the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs). Gout does not directly involve chondrocyte injury.
C) An immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue results in inflammation:
This process describes the pathophysiology of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, where immune complexes and autoantibodies contribute to inflammation and tissue damage. In gout, the inflammation is primarily triggered by the deposition of urate crystals rather than immune complex deposition.
D) An autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen causes joint destruction:
This option describes the autoimmune process seen in diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, where antibodies target specific antigens, leading to joint destruction. Gout is not an autoimmune disease, and joint destruction in gout is primarily due to inflammation caused by urate crystal deposition rather than autoimmune mechanisms.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client's symptoms, along with the elevated serum amylase and lipase levels, suggest the development of acute pancreatitis as a postoperative complication. Here's a detailed explanation for why option A is the correct choice:
A) Acute pancreatitis:
Correct. Acute pancreatitis is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, which can be triggered by various factors, including gallstones, alcohol consumption, and certain medications. In this case, the client's recent cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis (gallstones) may have led to the development of acute pancreatitis. The persistent upper abdominal pain radiating to the back, along with vomiting and fever, are classic symptoms of acute pancreatitis. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are common laboratory findings in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic cell injury and leakage of these enzymes into the bloodstream.
B) Surgical site infection:
While surgical site infections are potential complications of cholecystectomy, the client's symptoms, including upper abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever, are more indicative of a systemic inflammatory process rather than localized infection at the surgical site.
C) Hepatorenal failure:
Hepatorenal failure, also known as hepatorenal syndrome, refers to kidney dysfunction that occurs as a complication of advanced liver disease. The client's symptoms and laboratory findings are not consistent with hepatorenal failure, as there are no signs of significant liver dysfunction or advanced liver disease.
D) Biliary duct obstruction:
While biliary duct obstruction can lead to symptoms similar to those of acute pancreatitis, such as upper abdominal pain and vomiting, the presence of elevated serum amylase and lipase levels strongly suggests pancreatic involvement rather than isolated biliary duct obstruction.
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