The nurse is caring for a client with stage 4 chronic kidney disease. Which interpretation should the nurse make about the client's glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
Severely decreased GFR.
Mildly decreased GFR.
Kidney damage with increased GFR.
Moderately decreased GFR.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Severely decreased GFR:
In stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is indeed severely decreased. Stage 4 CKD is characterized by a GFR between 15 and 29 mL/min/1.73 m² according to the Kidney Disease Outcomes Quality Initiative (KDOQI) guidelines. At this stage, there is significant kidney damage, resulting in a substantial reduction in kidney function and GFR. Clients with stage 4 CKD require close monitoring and management to prevent further progression of kidney disease and associated complications.
B. Mildly decreased GFR:
This choice is incorrect. Stage 4 CKD is not associated with a mildly decreased GFR. A mildly decreased GFR would typically be indicative of earlier stages of CKD. In stage 4 CKD, the reduction in GFR is severe, falling below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
C. Kidney damage with increased GFR:
This interpretation is inaccurate. In stage 4 CKD, kidney damage leads to a progressive decline in GFR, rather than an increase. An increased GFR is not typical of advanced CKD stages; instead, it may occur in conditions such as hyperfiltration in early stages of diabetic nephropathy.
D. Moderately decreased GFR:
This option is also incorrect. Stage 4 CKD is not associated with a moderately decreased GFR. A moderately decreased GFR would typically be indicative of stage 3 CKD, where the GFR ranges from 30 to 59 mL/min/1.73 m². In stage 4 CKD, the reduction in GFR is more severe, falling below 30 mL/min/1.73 m².
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The client's symptoms, along with the elevated serum amylase and lipase levels, suggest the development of acute pancreatitis as a postoperative complication. Here's a detailed explanation for why option A is the correct choice:
A) Acute pancreatitis:
Correct. Acute pancreatitis is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas, which can be triggered by various factors, including gallstones, alcohol consumption, and certain medications. In this case, the client's recent cholecystectomy for cholelithiasis (gallstones) may have led to the development of acute pancreatitis. The persistent upper abdominal pain radiating to the back, along with vomiting and fever, are classic symptoms of acute pancreatitis. Elevated serum amylase and lipase levels are common laboratory findings in acute pancreatitis due to pancreatic cell injury and leakage of these enzymes into the bloodstream.
B) Surgical site infection:
While surgical site infections are potential complications of cholecystectomy, the client's symptoms, including upper abdominal pain, vomiting, and fever, are more indicative of a systemic inflammatory process rather than localized infection at the surgical site.
C) Hepatorenal failure:
Hepatorenal failure, also known as hepatorenal syndrome, refers to kidney dysfunction that occurs as a complication of advanced liver disease. The client's symptoms and laboratory findings are not consistent with hepatorenal failure, as there are no signs of significant liver dysfunction or advanced liver disease.
D) Biliary duct obstruction:
While biliary duct obstruction can lead to symptoms similar to those of acute pancreatitis, such as upper abdominal pain and vomiting, the presence of elevated serum amylase and lipase levels strongly suggests pancreatic involvement rather than isolated biliary duct obstruction.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) An increase in afterload results in decreased systolic pressure, which creates a decreased cardiac output:
This statement is not consistent with the Frank-Starling law. Afterload refers to the resistance against which the heart must pump blood during systole. An increase in afterload typically results in increased systolic pressure, not decreased, as the heart works harder to overcome the increased resistance. However, increased afterload can lead to decreased cardiac output due to the increased work of the heart.
B) A decrease in afterload causes the cardiac muscles to hypertrophy, resulting in increased diastolic volume:
This statement is not consistent with the Frank-Starling law. Afterload refers to the pressure or resistance against which the heart must pump blood during systole. A decrease in afterload typically reduces the workload on the heart, which may lead to reverse remodeling and a reduction in cardiac hypertrophy. Increased diastolic volume may occur due to reduced afterload, but it's not the direct result of hypertrophy.
C) An increase in preload results in greater shortening of myocardial fibers, thereby increasing contractility:
Correct. According to the Frank-Starling law, an increase in preload (end-diastolic volume or stretch of myocardial fibers) leads to greater overlap of actin and myosin filaments within myocardial fibers during systole. This increased overlap results in stronger myocardial contraction (increased contractility), leading to an increased stroke volume and cardiac output.
D) A decrease in preload results in increasing diastolic muscle fiber length, which impedes contractility:
This statement is not consistent with the Frank-Starling law. Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the myocardial fibers at the end of diastole. A decrease in preload would lead to decreased stretch of the myocardial fibers, not increasing diastolic muscle fiber length. Decreased preload typically results in decreased contractility rather than impediment to contractility due to reduced myocardial stretch.
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