The nurse is caring for a client with sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/min, blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and reports feeling faint. Which is the appropriate action?

Give the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem).

Reposition the patient on the left side.

Have the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver.

Apply the transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Sinus bradycardia with a heart rate of 32 beats/min and accompanying hypotension and symptoms of feeling faint indicates significant hemodynamic compromise. In such cases, the first-line intervention is to provide external cardiac pacing through transcutaneous pacemaker (TCP) pads. TCP can help increase the heart rate and improve cardiac output by delivering electrical impulses to the heart.

Administering the scheduled dose of diltiazem (Cardizem), a calcium channel blocker, is not appropriate in this situation. Diltiazem can further lower the heart rate and blood pressure, exacerbating the client's symptoms and potentially leading to adverse effects.

Repositioning the patient on the left side or having the patient perform the Valsalva maneuver are not effective interventions for treating sinus bradycardia with hemodynamic compromise. These actions may be used in specific situations, but in this case, the client requires immediate intervention to address the low heart rate and blood pressure.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The inability to move the left arm and leg suggests a neurological deficit, which is a significant finding that requires immediate attention. It could indicate a potential stroke or another neurological emergency that requires prompt evaluation and intervention. The health care provider needs to be notified immediately so that appropriate diagnostic tests and interventions can be initiated.

Tremors in the fingers when extending the arms can be a sign of tremor disorders or medication side effects but may not warrant immediate intervention.

Atrial fibrillation is a cardiac arrhythmia that requires monitoring and management but may not be directly related to the acute neurological issue.

The headache reported by the patient, although significant, is subjective and may be related to the hypertensive emergency or other factors but does not require immediate intervention compared to the potential neurological deficit.

A. A client with a blood pressure of 190/92 mm Hg who reports chest pain B. A client with a blood pressure of 190/104 mm Hg who has sinus tachycardia C. A client with a blood pressure of 178/90 mm Hg who has intermittent claudication D. A client with a blood pressure of 172/98 mm Hg scheduled for a stress test

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse should assess the client with a blood pressure of 190/92 mm Hg who reports chest pain ﬁrst. Chest pain can be a symptom of myocardial ischemia or a heart attack, which requires immediate attention. The combination of high blood pressure and chest pain is concerning and may indicate acute coronary syndrome. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to evaluate the cause of the chest pain and initiate appropriate treatment.

A client with a blood pressure of 190/104 mm Hg who has sinus tachycardia: While sinus tachycardia may indicate increased heart rate, it does not necessarily require immediate assessment unless other concerning symptoms are present. However, the nurse should address the elevated blood pressure in a timely manner.

Intermittent claudication refers to leg pain or discomfort during physical activity due to reduced blood ﬂow. While it is important to assess and manage this symptom, it is not typically considered an urgent condition requiring immediate assessment compared to chest pain.

The client scheduled for a stress test may have elevated blood pressure, but if they are stable and not currently experiencing symptoms, they may not require immediate assessment compared to a client with chest pain.

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The nurse is caring for a client with sinus bradycardia at a rate of 32 beats/min, blood pressure (BP) of 80/42 mm Hg, and reports feeling faint. Which is the appropriate action?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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