The nurse is caring for a client with a serum magnesium of 2.9 mEq/L. The nurse should anticipate a prescription from the primary healthcare provider for what treatment?

Fluid restriction

Furosemide (Lasix)

Calcium carbonate (Tums)

Magnesium oxide (MagOx)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. Fluid restriction: Fluid restriction is not indicated for high serum magnesium levels. It is generally used for conditions like heart failure or renal impairment, but not specifically for managing hypermagnesemia.
B. Furosemide (Lasix): This is the correct choice because furosemide is a diuretic that can help promote the excretion of excess magnesium through the urine. It is an appropriate treatment for hypermagnesemia, which is indicated by the elevated serum magnesium level.
C. Calcium carbonate (Tums): This option is incorrect as calcium carbonate is typically used to treat hypomagnesemia (low magnesium levels) or to bind excess phosphate, not to manage elevated magnesium levels.
D. Magnesium oxide (MagOx): This is not suitable because magnesium oxide would increase the magnesium level further, not decrease it. It is used to supplement magnesium in cases of deficiency, not to treat hypermagnesemia.

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Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Reddish streak proximal to the insertion site: This indicates phlebitis, not infiltration.
B. Skin is pale and taut: This indicates infiltration as fluid accumulates in the surrounding tissue, causing the skin to appear pale and tight.
C. The vein is firm and cord-like: This is typically a sign of phlebitis or thrombophlebitis, not infiltration.
D. IV fluid leaking from insertion site: This is a sign of infiltration where fluid has leaked out of the vein into the surrounding tissue.
E. Warmth at the insertion site: This can indicate infiltration or inflammation, depending on other symptoms present.

A. Tell the client he can no longer have any more pain medication B. Notify the prescribing physician C. Administer half the dose of morphine, 2 mg IV D. Administer 4 mg of morphine IV as ordered

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Tell the client he can no longer have any more pain medication: This is not appropriate. The client’s severe pain needs to be managed, but the current vital signs suggest a need for careful evaluation before administration.
B. Notify the prescribing physician: This is the correct choice. The client's blood pressure and respiratory rate are significantly low, which could be exacerbated by morphine. The physician needs to be informed to reassess pain management and possibly adjust the treatment.
C. Administer half the dose of morphine, 2 mg IV: Given the client's low blood pressure and respiratory rate, any morphine administration could worsen these issues. Adjusting the dose without physician guidance is not appropriate.
D. Administer 4 mg of morphine IV as ordered: Administering the full dose without addressing the client’s low blood pressure and respiratory rate could lead to severe complications.

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The nurse is caring for a client with a serum magnesium of 2.9 mEq/L. The nurse should anticipate a prescription from the primary healthcare provider for what treatment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which of the following assessment findings should alert the nurse that a client's IV has infiltrated? (Select All That Apply)

Correct Answer is ["B","D","E"]

Explanation

A client indicates to the nurse a pain level of 8 out of 10. The nurse notes the client has an order for morphine 4 mg IV Q 6 hr PRN for moderate to severe pain. The client's blood pressure is 80/54 mm Hg, respirations 10 breaths/min, and pulse 62 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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