The nurse is caring for a client who tests positive for the sexually transmitted infection (STI) gonorrhea. The client reports having sex with someone who has many partners. Which response should the nurse provide?
Teach importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol.
Discuss that partners without similar symptoms may not be infected.
Emphasize that using safe sex practices removes the risk of STIs.
Clarify that all STIs are transmitted through sexual intercourse.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Teaching the importance of medication regimen and follow-up protocol is crucial for treating gonorrhea and preventing its spread to others. It addresses the immediate health concern and helps prevent further transmission.
B. While partners without symptoms may not show signs of infection, they could still be carriers of gonorrhea and should be tested and treated if necessary.
C. While using safe sex practices can reduce the risk of STIs, it may not completely eliminate the risk, especially if a partner has multiple sexual partners.
D. While sexual intercourse is a common mode of transmission for STIs, not all STIs are transmitted exclusively through sexual intercourse.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Asking about the effectiveness of antifungal creams is not relevant to herpes zoster, which is caused by the varicella-zoster virus.
B. Inquiring about family members sharing combs and brushes is not directly related to herpes zoster, as it is not transmitted through sharing personal items.
C. Asking about dry patches on the feet and hands may provide information about other dermatological conditions but does not specifically address herpes zoster.
D. Asking whether everyone at home has already had varicella is important because herpes zoster, commonly known as shingles, is caused by reactivation of the
varicella-zoster virus, which also causes chickenpox (varicella). Individuals who have not had chickenpox or been vaccinated against it may be at risk of developing chickenpox if exposed to herpes zoster lesions.
Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"D","dropdown-group-2":"B"}
Explanation
The rationale for selecting impaired gas exchange is based on the clinical manifestations presented by the client. The client's difficulty in breathing, the need to pause to catch breath, the ineffectiveness of the rescue inhaler, and the expressed feeling of nervousness during episodes are indicative of a compromised gas exchange. This is further supported by the objective data: an oxygen saturation of 88% on room air is below normal levels, suggesting that the client is not receiving adequate oxygen. Expiratory wheezes indicate an obstruction of airflow, commonly seen in asthma attacks, which can impair gas exchange. Therefore, the nurse's assessment and the client's symptoms align with the diagnosis of impaired gas exchange, necessitating immediate intervention to improve the client's respiratory function.
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