The nurse is assessing vital signs and is preparing to measure the client's blood pressure. Prior to obtaining the blood pressure, what action would be most appropriate?
Inflate the blood pressure cuff 30 mmHg above the point where the radial pulse disappears.
Assist the patient to a standing position for five to ten minutes.
Palpate the radial artery and place your stethoscope lightly over this area.
Measure the blood pressure cuff, ensuring that the cuff encircles 60% of the client’s arm.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Inflating the blood pressure cuff 30 mmHg above the point where the radial pulse disappears is correct. This method, known as the palpatory method, prevents auscultatory gap errors and ensures an accurate blood pressure reading.
B. Assisting the patient to a standing position for five to ten minutes is incorrect unless assessing for orthostatic hypotension. For routine blood pressure measurements, the client should be seated and at rest for at least five minutes.
C. Palpating the radial artery and placing the stethoscope lightly over this area is incorrect because blood pressure is auscultated over the brachial artery, not the radial artery.
D. Measuring the blood pressure cuff to encircle 60% of the client’s arm is incorrect. The correct guideline is that the cuff bladder should encircle at least 80% of the arm circumference, not 60%.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Increased urinary output is incorrect because NSAIDs like ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to fluid retention and decreased urine output, not increased output.
B. Increased heart rate is correct. Long-term NSAID use can cause gastrointestinal (GI) irritation and ulcers, which may lead to occult blood loss and anemia. Anemia can result in tachycardia (increased heart rate) as the body compensates for decreased oxygen delivery. C. Decreased heart rate is incorrect because anemia and pain typically cause tachycardia, not bradycardia.
D. Hypoglycemia is incorrect because NSAIDs do not significantly impact blood glucose levels.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
D. "Client denies recent constipation, diarrhea, bowel incontinence, or abdominal pain." is correct because it is the most specific and complete documentation of the client’s subjective report. It ensures clarity, accuracy, and thorough assessment.
A. This is incorrect because stating "within normal limits" is vague and does not specify what was assessed.
B. This is incorrect because stating "problems are not present" is too general and does not include specific symptoms the client was asked about.
C. This is incorrect because "denies gastrointestinal signs and symptoms" lacks specificity regarding which symptoms were assessed.
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