The nurse is assessing an adolescent female diagnosed with anorexia nervosa who is admitted to the unit with severe malnutrition and electrolyte imbalance.
Which pathological process results from the adolescent's consistent maladaptive behavior?
Sinus tachycardia.
Menstrual cramps.
Hypertension.
Amenorrhea.
Amenorrhea.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale:
Sinus tachycardia may occur in response to various stressors or physiological conditions but is not directly related to anorexia nervosa or severe malnutrition. It is not the primary pathological process resulting from this condition.
Choice B rationale:
Menstrual cramps are not a pathological process but rather a symptom that may result from hormonal changes or other factors. While amenorrhea (absence of menstrual periods) is a common feature of anorexia nervosa, menstrual cramps are not a primary concern in this context.
Choice C rationale:
Hypertension is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa or severe malnutrition. In fact, individuals with anorexia nervosa often experience hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and nutritional deficiencies.
Choice D rationale:
Amenorrhea is the primary pathological process resulting from the adolescent's consistent maladaptive behavior of anorexia nervosa. Severe malnutrition and low body weight can disrupt the normal menstrual cycle and lead to amenorrhea. This is a significant concern for individuals with anorexia nervosa and can have long-term health implications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The neurology unit supervisor is not the most appropriate nurse to coordinate the progression of care for a client with a spinal cord injury (SCI). While they may have expertise in neurology, the nurse case manager is specifically trained to coordinate and manage the care of patients with complex conditions, including SCI. They can facilitate communication between various healthcare providers and ensure that the client receives comprehensive care throughout their stay.
Choice B rationale:
An adult nurse practitioner may have specialized knowledge in the care of adults, but they may not have the specific skills and training required to coordinate the care of a client with a spinal cord injury in the ICU. Nurse case managers are better equipped to manage complex cases and ensure the continuity of care for the client.
Choice D rationale:
A risk management nurse focuses on minimizing healthcare-related risks and ensuring the safety of patients and staff. While their role is essential, it is not the primary responsibility to coordinate the progression of care for a client with a spinal cord injury. The nurse case manager is better suited for this role as they specialize in care coordination.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer is a positive sign of wound healing, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is to reduce pain and neuropathic symptoms.
Choice B rationale:
A reduced level of pain is the most relevant indicator of the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin is an antiepileptic medication used to manage neuropathic pain. A decrease in pain indicates that the medication is effectively managing the client's symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Improved visual acuity is not directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating diabetic peripheral neuropathy. Pregabalin primarily targets neuropathic pain and sensory symptoms, not visual function.
Choice D rationale:
A full volume of pedal pulses is a positive sign of adequate circulation in the lower extremities, but it may not be directly related to the effectiveness of pregabalin in treating neuropathy symptoms. The primary goal of pregabalin in this context is pain management.
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