The nurse is assessing a patient prior to surgery for esophageal cancer. Which of the following would be considered a risk factor for the development of this disease?
Herpes Simplex
Consumption of spicy foods
Reflux Disease
Daily NSAID use
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is not directly linked to an increased risk of esophageal cancer. While it can cause infections in the esophagus, especially in immunocompromised individuals, it is not recognized as a significant risk factor for esophageal cancer itself.
B. While some individuals may experience discomfort from spicy foods, there is no substantial evidence linking the consumption of spicy foods directly to the development of esophageal cancer. Dietary factors are more complex, and spicy foods are not typically identified as a primary risk factor.
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is a significant risk factor for esophageal cancer, particularly adenocarcinoma. Chronic reflux can lead to changes in the esophageal lining (Barrett's esophagus), which is a precancerous condition. Therefore, this is a well-established risk factor.
D. The use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is not considered a direct risk factor for esophageal cancer. In some contexts, NSAIDs may even have a protective effect against certain types of cancer due to their anti-inflammatory properties. However, chronic use can lead to gastrointestinal complications, including ulcers, but does not have a clear link to the development of esophageal cancer.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. This finding is generally not associated with peritonitis. Instead, hyperactive bowel sounds may indicate early gastrointestinal irritation or obstruction. In the case of peritonitis, bowel sounds are often diminished or absent due to the inflammation and irritation of the peritoneum.
B. Profuse diarrhea is not a typical sign of peritonitis. While gastrointestinal disturbances can occur, diarrhea is more commonly associated with infections or irritations of the intestines rather than with peritonitis itself. Peritonitis typically presents with symptoms related to abdominal rigidity and pain.
C. A hard, rigid abdomen is a classic sign of peritonitis. It indicates involuntary guarding, which occurs as a response to inflammation and irritation of the peritoneum. The rigidity reflects the body's protective mechanism against pain and is a significant assessment finding.
D. While abdominal cramping can occur in various gastrointestinal conditions, it is not a specific indicator of peritonitis. In cases of peritonitis, the pain is often more severe and localized rather than cramping. The patient may experience sharp, steady pain that worsens with movement.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. In roseola (also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease), a child typically develops a rash that is characterized by small, rose-colored spots (maculopapular rash) after the fever resolves. However, it is not primarily described as a "red papular rash" at the onset, which can lead to some confusion.
B. Koplik spots are small, white lesions that appear inside the mouth and are characteristic of measles, not roseola. They do not occur in roseola.
C. A severe cough is not a symptom of roseola. While respiratory symptoms can be present in many viral infections, roseola is primarily characterized by a high fever followed by a rash, with minimal respiratory involvement.
D. Inflammation of the parotid gland is associated with mumps, not roseola. Roseola does not typically involve swelling of the salivary glands.
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