The nurse is assessing a client who is one day postoperative parathyroidectomy and finds that the client is experiencing stridor. After notifying the healthcare provider (HCP), the nurse should prepare for which procedure?

Central line insertion.

Nasogastric tube (NGT) insertion.

Tracheostomy placement.

Pacemaker placement.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason: Central line insertion is not the appropriate intervention for managing stridor in a postoperative parathyroidectomy patient. Stridor indicates airway obstruction, which requires immediate airway management, not central venous access.

Choice B reason: Nasogastric tube (NGT) insertion is not the correct intervention for stridor. NGT insertion is typically used for gastrointestinal decompression or feeding, not for managing airway obstruction.

Choice C reason: Tracheostomy placement is the correct intervention for managing stridor in a postoperative parathyroidectomy patient. Stridor indicates a potential airway obstruction, which can be life-threatening. A tracheostomy provides a secure airway and ensures adequate ventilation.

Choice D reason: Pacemaker placement is not relevant to managing stridor. Pacemakers are used for cardiac rhythm management and do not address airway obstruction.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: An exit site infection can occur around the catheter insertion site, leading to redness, tenderness, and drainage. While this is a concerning issue that needs to be addressed, the more significant complication to prevent is peritonitis, which can result from an exit site infection if it spreads.

Choice B reason: Peritonitis is a serious and potentially life-threatening infection of the peritoneal cavity. In clients on peritoneal dialysis, signs such as redness, tenderness, and drainage around the catheter site are alarming indicators that could lead to peritonitis if not promptly treated. Peritonitis can cause severe abdominal pain, fever, and cloudy dialysis fluid, and requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications.

Choice C reason: Outflow obstruction is a complication where the peritoneal dialysis fluid does not drain properly. This can be caused by a number of issues including catheter malposition or blockages, but it is not directly related to the symptoms of redness, tenderness, and drainage at the catheter site. Outflow obstruction is important to monitor but does not represent the immediate risk that peritonitis does.

Choice D reason: Atelectasis refers to the collapse of a part or all of a lung, often due to blockage of the air passages. This is not related to the symptoms around the peritoneal dialysis catheter site. While respiratory issues must be monitored, the primary concern here is the potential for peritoneal infection.

A. Distinguish the difference between herpes varicella and herpes zoster. B. Explain that the risk of developing shingles decreases with age. C. Affirm that a person with shingles has a history of chickenpox infection. D. Ask the client to describe the type of shingles that her brother has. E. Instruct client to report the development of fatigue and low-grade fever.

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

Choice A reason: Distinguishing the difference between herpes varicella and herpes zoster is important for client education. Herpes varicella (chickenpox) and herpes zoster (shingles) are caused by the same virus, the varicella-zoster virus (VZV). After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve tissues and can reactivate years later as shingles. Educating the client about the relationship between these two conditions helps in understanding the risk and nature of shingles.

Choice B reason: Explaining that the risk of developing shingles decreases with age is incorrect. In fact, the risk of developing shingles increases with age, especially in individuals over 50. The immune system's ability to keep the varicella-zoster virus dormant decreases with age, leading to a higher likelihood of reactivation as shingles. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate for client education.

Choice C reason: Affirming that a person with shingles has a history of chickenpox infection is accurate. Shingles occurs when the dormant varicella-zoster virus reactivates in someone who has previously had chickenpox. This information helps the client understand the connection between past chickenpox infection and the potential for developing shingles.

Choice D reason: Asking the client to describe the type of shingles that her brother has is not relevant to the client's own risk or education about shingles. The focus should be on providing accurate information about shingles and its relation to chickenpox, not on the details of another person's condition.

Choice E reason: Instructing the client to report the development of fatigue and low-grade fever is important because these can be early symptoms of shingles. Early identification and treatment of shingles can help manage symptoms and reduce complications. Educating the client on what to watch for and when to seek medical attention is crucial for effective management.

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The nurse is assessing a client who is one day postoperative parathyroidectomy and finds that the client is experiencing stridor. After notifying the healthcare provider (HCP), the nurse should prepare for which procedure?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with chronic kidney disease on peritoneal dialysis exhibits redness, tenderness, and drainage around the catheter site on the abdominal wall. While planning care, the nurse is most concerned about preventing which complication related to these findings?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client reports to the nurse of recently visiting someone who has a shingles infection. The client believes that having had chickenpox as a child will be protective against shingles. How should the nurse respond? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A","C","E"]

Explanation

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