The nurse identifies which patient condition may be treated with a tissue plasminogen activator?
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Sarcoidosis
Atelectasis
Pulmonary embolus (PE)
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is a chronic, progressive lung disease characterized by scarring of the lung tissue. Tissue plasminogen activators (tPAs) are not used for this condition, as they are primarily designed to dissolve blood clots, not to address fibrotic changes in the lungs.
Choice B reason: Sarcoidosis is an inflammatory disease that affects multiple organs, particularly the lungs and lymph glands. It involves the growth of tiny collections of inflammatory cells called granulomas. Tissue plasminogen activators are not used in the treatment of sarcoidosis since the condition is not related to blood clots but rather to immune system dysregulation.
Choice C reason: Atelectasis is the complete or partial collapse of a lung or lobe of a lung due to alveoli deflation. The treatment typically focuses on re-expanding the lung tissue through techniques such as deep breathing exercises, bronchoscopy, or mechanical ventilation. Tissue plasminogen activators are not relevant for this condition, as they are used to dissolve blood clots, not to treat lung collapse.
Choice D reason: Pulmonary embolus (PE) is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by blood clots that travel to the lungs from the legs or other parts of the body (deep vein thrombosis). Tissue plasminogen activators are used to treat PE because they can effectively dissolve the blood clots obstructing the pulmonary arteries, thereby restoring normal blood flow and preventing further complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning as it is on the lower end of normal and can indicate dehydration or impaired renal function. However, in this context, it is less immediately alarming compared to severely low blood pressure.
Choice B reason: Blood pressure of 90/40 is critically low and indicates hypotension, which can be a sign of severe dehydration or shock, especially in a patient with ongoing nausea and vomiting. This requires immediate attention and intervention to stabilize the patient and prevent further complications.
Choice C reason: An infiltrated IV site is a problem that needs to be addressed to ensure proper administration of fluids and medications. However, it is not as immediately life-threatening as hypotension.
Choice D reason: Oral fluid intake of 100 mL for 8 hours is inadequate, suggesting that the patient may be dehydrated. While concerning, it is not as acutely critical as low blood pressure, which directly affects perfusion and organ function.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Hypotension, chills, and thirst are not characteristic signs and symptoms of a thyroid storm. Hypotension generally indicates low blood pressure, while chills and thirst are less specific symptoms that do not particularly point to thyroid storm.
Choice B reason: Lethargy, confusion, and bradycardia are not typical indicators of a thyroid storm. These symptoms might be present in other conditions but are not generally associated with the severe hypermetabolic state seen in thyroid storms.
Choice C reason: Bradycardia, hypotension, and low urine output are also not typical signs of a thyroid storm. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) are more likely associated with severe hypothyroidism or other conditions, not the hyperactive state of a thyroid storm.
Choice D reason: Fever, tachycardia, and tremors are classic signs of a thyroid storm. A thyroid storm is a life-threatening condition characterized by an excessive amount of thyroid hormones, leading to hypermetabolic activity. This results in symptoms like a high fever, rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and tremors.
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