The nurse assesses a patient who experienced a spinal cord injury at the T5 level 24 hours ago. Assessment findings are:
Temp: 99.0°F
HR: 46 beats/min
BP: 78/52 mmHg
RR: 20 breaths/min
SaO2: 94% on 2L NC
Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate?
Suction the patient immediately.
NS at 25 cc/hr.
Raise the head of the bed.
Dopamine IV drip.
HR: 46 beats/min
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Suctioning the patient immediately is not the appropriate intervention in this context. Suctioning can be necessary if the patient has secretions obstructing the airway, but it does not address the issues of bradycardia (low heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) which are critical in a spinal cord injury.
Choice B reason: Administering normal saline (NS) at 25 cc/hr is not sufficient to address the patient's hypotension. In a patient with a spinal cord injury at the T5 level, hypotension is likely due to neurogenic shock, and more aggressive fluid resuscitation or pharmacological support is needed.
Choice C reason: Raising the head of the bed is not appropriate for managing the patient's condition. In fact, keeping the head elevated can worsen hypotension by reducing venous return to the heart. The focus should be on stabilizing blood pressure and heart rate.
Choice D reason: The correct intervention is starting a dopamine IV drip. Dopamine is a vasopressor that helps increase blood pressure and heart rate, which is crucial in managing neurogenic shock. By administering dopamine, the nurse can help stabilize the patient's cardiovascular status and improve perfusion to vital organs.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["D"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Administering a vasopressor is not appropriate for low afterload. Vasopressors are used to increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction, which increases afterload. However, the administration of a vasopressor for low afterload is contradictory because the goal for low afterload would be to reduce the strain on the heart, not to increase it.
Choice B reason: Administering a vasodilator for low afterload is not correct. Vasodilators decrease afterload by causing the blood vessels to widen, reducing the resistance the heart has to pump against. Administering a vasodilator to treat low afterload is inappropriate because it would further lower afterload, potentially leading to inadequate perfusion and worsening cardiac output.
Choice C reason: Administering diuretics for low right atrial (RA) pressure is inappropriate. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body, reducing blood volume and venous pressure. However, if a patient has low right atrial pressure, reducing blood volume further with diuretics could exacerbate the issue, leading to decreased cardiac output and poor perfusion.
Choice D reason: Administering a fluid bolus is the correct intervention for low preload. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. If preload is low, administering fluids increases blood volume, which enhances ventricular filling and improves cardiac output. This intervention helps to stabilize hemodynamics and improve overall perfusion.
Choice E reason: Administering a diuretic or vasodilator is the appropriate intervention for high preload. High preload indicates an excess of blood volume returning to the heart, which can strain the cardiac muscle and reduce efficiency. Diuretics help remove excess fluid, while vasodilators decrease venous return and reduce the volume of blood the heart has to handle, thus optimizing cardiac function and output.
Correct Answer is ["A","C","E","F","G"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Decreased calcium is expected in end-stage chronic kidney disease (CKD) due to impaired kidney function. The kidneys are responsible for converting vitamin D into its active form, which helps in calcium absorption. Reduced kidney function leads to decreased active vitamin D, resulting in lower calcium levels.
Choice B reason: Decreased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is not typical in CKD. Instead, BUN levels usually increase because the kidneys are less able to remove urea from the blood. Urea is a waste product of protein metabolism, and elevated BUN is indicative of impaired kidney function.
Choice C reason: Decreased hemoglobin is expected in CKD due to reduced production of erythropoietin by the kidneys. Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells, and a lack of it leads to anemia, reflected by lower hemoglobin levels.
Choice D reason: Decreased potassium is not typically seen in CKD. In fact, potassium levels often increase because the kidneys are less able to excrete it. Hyperkalemia (high potassium) is a common complication in CKD and requires careful monitoring.
Choice E reason: Elevated creatinine is expected in CKD. Creatinine is a waste product of muscle metabolism, and elevated levels indicate impaired kidney function as the kidneys are less able to clear it from the blood.
Choice F reason: Increased phosphorus is a common finding in CKD due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete phosphorus. This can lead to hyperphosphatemia, which can cause secondary hyperparathyroidism and further complications.
Choice G reason: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is a hallmark of CKD. GFR measures how well the kidneys are filtering blood, and a lower GFR indicates reduced kidney function. It is used to stage the severity of CKD.
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