The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with heart failure and a decreased cardiac output with an ejection fraction of 30%. Which finding should receive the highest priority?

BP 110/62, atrial fibrillation with HR 82, bilateral basilar crackles.

Weight gain of 1 kg in 3 days, BP 130/80, mild dyspnea with exercise.

SpO2 92% on 2L nasal cannula, respirations 20/min, 1+ edema of lower extremities.

Confusion, urine output 15 mL over the last 2 hours, orthopnea.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: While atrial fibrillation, bilateral basilar crackles, and a blood pressure of 110/62 indicate important findings in a client with heart failure, they are not immediately life-threatening compared to the symptoms in choice d. Bilateral crackles suggest fluid overload and pulmonary congestion, which require attention, but the priority should be on more critical signs of decreased perfusion.

Choice B reason: Weight gain of 1 kg in 3 days and mild dyspnea with exercise are signs of fluid retention and worsening heart failure. However, they are not as urgent as the symptoms of confusion and low urine output, which suggest severe hypoperfusion and potential organ failure.

Choice C reason: A SpO2 of 92% on 2L nasal cannula, respirations of 20/min, and 1+ edema of the lower extremities indicate mild hypoxemia and fluid overload. Although these findings are important and need management, they are not as critical as the symptoms in choice d, which suggest severe hypoperfusion and a potential emergency.

Choice D reason: Confusion, urine output of 15 mL over the last 2 hours, and orthopnea are the most concerning findings. Confusion indicates decreased cerebral perfusion, which is a sign of severe heart failure and possibly impending cardiogenic shock. Low urine output (oliguria) suggests poor renal perfusion, indicating that the kidneys are not receiving enough blood flow. Orthopnea (difficulty breathing while lying down) is a classic symptom of severe heart failure and pulmonary congestion. These symptoms suggest that the client is in a critical condition that requires immediate intervention to improve perfusion and prevent further deterioration.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Completion of antibiotic therapy does not necessarily correlate with a decrease in the risk of infection in burn patients. While antibiotics can help manage existing infections, the risk for new infections remains until the burn wounds are fully healed. Open burn wounds provide a portal of entry for pathogens, and the presence of necrotic tissue can further increase infection risk.

Choice B reason: Returning albumin levels to normal can improve the overall nutritional status and healing process of a burn patient, but it does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Albumin levels are more indicative of the patient's nutritional status and fluid balance. The primary concern for infection risk remains the open burn wounds, which serve as a direct route for pathogens.

Choice C reason: Completion of the fluid resuscitation process is crucial for stabilizing a burn patient's hemodynamic status and ensuring adequate perfusion to tissues. However, fluid resuscitation does not directly impact the risk of infection. The risk of infection is predominantly related to the presence and extent of open burn wounds.

Choice D reason: The correct response is that the risk for infection significantly decreases when all of the burn wounds have closed. Closed wounds provide a barrier against pathogens and reduce the risk of infection. Wound closure can be achieved through natural healing or surgical interventions such as skin grafting. Until the wounds are fully closed, the patient remains at a high risk for infection.

A. The client needs a muscle relaxant. B. The client has a nutritional imbalance. C. The client is experiencing a reaction to morphine. D. The client may be developing hypocalcemia.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Administering a muscle relaxant addresses the symptom of muscle twitching and jerking, but it does not identify or treat the underlying cause. For patients with acute pancreatitis, muscle twitching and jerking could be indicative of a more serious condition.

Choice B reason: While a nutritional imbalance could potentially lead to symptoms like muscle twitching and jerking, in the context of acute pancreatitis, the nurse should consider more specific causes related to the condition. Nutritional imbalances do not usually explain these symptoms in patients with pancreatitis as well as hypocalcemia does.

Choice C reason: A reaction to morphine could include various symptoms such as itching, nausea, or constipation, but muscle twitching and jerking are not common side effects. The nurse should consider other causes related to the patient's condition of acute pancreatitis.

Choice D reason: Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, is a common complication of acute pancreatitis. It can lead to symptoms such as muscle twitching and jerking, as calcium is crucial for proper muscle function and nerve signaling. This makes hypocalcemia the most relevant and accurate interpretation of the patient's symptoms in this context.

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The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with heart failure and a decreased cardiac output with an ejection fraction of 30%. Which finding should receive the highest priority?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse cares for a patient who has burn injuries. The patient's wife asks, "When will his high risk for infection decrease?" How would the nurse respond?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse notes that a client with acute pancreatitis occasionally experiences muscle twitching and jerking. How should the nurse interpret the relevance of these symptoms?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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