The MD schedules an ultrasonic lithotripsy.
Choose the correct description of this procedure.
An incision into the renal pelvis for stone removal.
An incision into the kidney to remove a stone.
A procedure used to break up stones, thus allowing them to pass from the urinary tract.
A minimally invasive technique using laser technology to fragment stones.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Incisions into the renal pelvis for stone removal describe open surgical methods, not ultrasonic lithotripsy. This invasive approach is reserved for cases where less invasive techniques fail or stones are inaccessible through standard methods. Lithotripsy avoids direct incisions, utilizing external energy for stone fragmentation.
Choice B rationale
Kidney incisions for stone removal align with nephrolithotomy procedures rather than ultrasonic lithotripsy. This alternative represents open surgical intervention, distinct from non-invasive lithotripsy technologies. Lithotripsy eliminates stones using sound waves or lasers, reducing surgical risks and recovery times.
Choice C rationale
Ultrasonic lithotripsy employs high-frequency sound waves to break stones into small fragments. This minimally invasive method allows natural passage through the urinary tract or facilitates removal via catheterization. It reduces complications compared to invasive surgeries and is highly effective for calculi management.
Choice D rationale
Laser fragmentation techniques differ from ultrasonic lithotripsy, involving concentrated light energy to break stones. While both are minimally invasive, ultrasonic methods utilize sound waves rather than light energy for disintegration. This technical distinction outlines lithotripsy's use of external sound waves for stone management.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Appendicitis is the leading cause of emergency abdominal surgeries, accounting for a significant percentage globally. It results from inflammation of the appendix, often due to obstruction by fecalith or lymphoid hyperplasia. This condition progresses to localized infection, abscess formation, and potential rupture, requiring urgent surgical intervention to prevent life-threatening complications.
Choice B rationale
The assertion that appendicitis is not the most common reason for emergency abdominal surgery contradicts epidemiological data. Diseases like cholecystitis or bowel obstructions occur less frequently and often have alternate non-surgical management options. Appendicitis’s acute presentation and high risk of complications necessitate surgery, maintaining its predominance in emergency settings.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Administering 1 mg of glucagon intramuscularly stimulates glycogenolysis in the liver, increasing blood glucose levels. However, it is slower in onset compared to IV dextrose, which is critical in a non-arousable patient with a dangerously low blood glucose level of 50 mg/dL. Time efficiency is vital in this emergency.
Choice B rationale
Administering 25 g of dextrose IV pushes glucose directly into the bloodstream, providing an immediate increase in blood glucose. This is the most appropriate action for a non-arousable, hypoglycemic patient. Normal blood glucose ranges between 70-100 mg/dL fasting, making this an emergency requiring prompt correction.
Choice C rationale
Encouraging the patient to eat may be effective in mild hypoglycemia, but not for a critically low level like 50 mg/dL in a non-arousable patient. This delay can result in prolonged neuroglycopenic effects, worsening the patient’s condition.
Choice D rationale
Administering 7 units of Humalog insulin would worsen the hypoglycemia by facilitating glucose uptake into cells, which is contraindicated in this situation. Instead, glucose administration is required to correct the hypoglycemia immediately.
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