The healthcare provider has ordered that a patient be placed on a hemostatic drug to control postoperative bleeding. Which of the following medications will most likely be given in this situation?
Trombin (Evithrom)
Aminocaproic acid (Amicar)
Aspirin
Tranexamic acid (Cyklokapron)
The Correct Answer is D
A. Trombin (Evithrom): Incorrect: Thrombin (also known as factor IIa) is not typically used as a hemostatic drug. It is involved in the final step of the coagulation cascade, converting fibrinogen to fibrin to form a stable clot. However, it is not administered directly as a medication.
B. Aminocaproic acid (Amicar): Aminocaproic acid is an antifibrinolytic agent commonly used to control bleeding. It works by inhibiting the breakdown of fibrin clots, thus promoting hemostasis. It is particularly useful in situations where excessive bleeding occurs due to impaired clot dissolution. However, tranexamic acid is generally considered more potent and has a longer-lasting effect, making it the preferred choice in many situations.
C. Aspirin: Incorrect: Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that inhibits platelet aggregation. While it can reduce the risk of clot formation, it is not primarily used for controlling postoperative bleeding.
D. Tranexamic acid (Cyklokapron): Correct: Tranexamic acid is another antifibrinolytic agent that helps prevent excessive bleeding. It works by blocking the breakdown of fibrin clots. Tranexamic acid is commonly used in surgical settings to manage bleeding during and after procedures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Ferrous sulfate: This is an iron supplement and wouldn't be used to reverse warfarin's anticoagulant effect.
B. Prednisone: This is a steroid medication used for various inflammatory conditions and wouldn't be used to address excessive blood thinning.
C. Vitamin K: Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin poisoning or excessive anticoagulation. By providing vitamin K, the body can resume producing clotting factors, counteracting warfarin's effect.
D. Heparin: This is another blood thinner medication. While it can be used in specific situations, it wouldn't be the first choice to reverse warfarin's effect because it adds another layer of anticoagulation, which could be risky.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Use a 22-gauge needle to inject the medication.
This is inappropriate. Subcutaneous injections typically require a smaller gauge needle, usually between 25 to 30 gauge, to minimize tissue damage and discomfort. A 22-gauge needle is too large for subcutaneous injections and is more appropriate for intramuscular injections.
B. Inject the medication into the abdomen above the level of the iliac crest.
This is appropriate. The preferred site for subcutaneous heparin injection is the abdomen, avoiding areas near the umbilicus by at least 2 inches. Injecting above the level of the iliac crest is appropriate as it ensures the medication is administered into the subcutaneous tissue where it can be properly absorbed. The abdomen is chosen due to its ample subcutaneous tissue and relatively few large blood vessels, reducing the risk of bleeding and bruising.
C. Massage the injection site after administration of the medication.
This is inappropriate. Massaging the injection site after administering heparin is not recommended as it can cause bruising and increase the risk of bleeding. Heparin is an anticoagulant, and massaging the site can disrupt the tissue and lead to complications.
D. Use a 1-inch needle to inject the medication.
This is inappropriate. A 1-inch needle is generally used for intramuscular injections, not subcutaneous injections. For subcutaneous injections, a shorter needle (usually 3/8 to 5/8 inch) is sufficient to reach the subcutaneous tissue without penetrating too deeply into muscle tissue.
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