The charge nurse of a critical care unit must transfer a client to a general unit to make a bed available for an incoming trauma client. Based on the information provided, which client is best for the nurse to recommend for transfer to the general unit?
Subtotal thyroidectomy performed one hour ago, receiving a unit of packed red blood cells.
Combined partial and full-thickness burns on the anterior chest three days ago. O2 saturation is 92%.
Renal transplant yesterday, complaining of flank pain and who states, "it's hot in here."
Nephrotic syndrome diagnosed 2 days ago, decreased serum protein level and mild edema.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: A subtotal thyroidectomy is a major surgery that involves the removal of part of the thyroid gland. The client may have complications such as bleeding, infection, hypocalcemia, or vocal cord damage. The client also needs close monitoring of vital signs, blood transfusion, and airway patency. This client is not stable enough to be transferred to a general unit.
Choice B Reason: A combined partial and full-thickness burn is a serious injury that involves damage to the epidermis, dermis, and underlying tissues. The client may have complications such as infection, fluid loss, hypovolemia, shock, or respiratory distress. The client also needs wound care, pain management, fluid replacement, and oxygen therapy. This client is not stable enough to be transferred to a general unit.
Choice C Reason: A renal transplant is a major surgery that involves the replacement of a diseased kidney with a healthy one from a donor. The client may have complications such as rejection, infection, bleeding, thrombosis, or urinary obstruction. The client also needs immunosuppressive therapy, anti-infective therapy, fluid and electrolyte balance, and pain management. This client is not stable enough to be transferred to a general unit.
Choice D Reason: Nephrotic syndrome is a kidney disorder that causes excessive protein loss in the urine, leading to low serum protein levels and edema. The client may have complications such as infection, thromboembolism, or malnutrition. The client needs diuretic therapy, protein replacement, dietary modification, and infection prevention. This client is relatively stable and can be transferred to a general unit.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: This client has a very high BNP level, which indicates severe heart failure and fluid overload. The nurse should follow up with this client first, as they may need urgent interventions such as oxygen therapy, diuretics, and vasodilators.
Choice B Reason: This client has an INR within the therapeutic range for warfarin therapy, which is usually between 2 and 3. The nurse should monitor this client for signs of bleeding or clotting, but they do not require immediate follow-up.
Choice C Reason: This client has a mildly elevated glucose level, which may be caused by the corticosteroids that
increase blood sugar. The nurse should check the client's blood glucose regularly and administer insulin as ordered, but they do not require immediate follow-up.
Choice D Reason: This client has a normal potassium level, which is within the reference range of 3.5 to 5 mEq/L. The nurse should ensure that the client is ready for dialysis and avoid foods high in potassium, but they do not require immediate follow-up.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Cautioning the nurse that one more tardiness will result in probational employment is not the best approach because it is too punitive and does not address the underlying cause of the tardiness. The nurse manager should first try to understand why the nurse is late and offer support or guidance if needed.
Choice B Reason: Offering to switch the nurse's shift assignments to afternoons or evenings is not the best approach because it may not solve the problem of tardiness and may create resentment among other staff members who have to adjust their schedules. The nurse manager should respect the nurse's preferences and availability but also hold the nurse accountable for fulfilling their responsibilities.
Choice C Reason: This is the best approach because it communicates clearly and respectfully what is expected of the nurse and why it is important for them to be punctual. The nurse manager should also provide feedback and recognition when the nurse improves their attendance.
Choice D reason: Having the nurse sign a copy of the hospital employee attendance policy is not the best approach because it may imply that the nurse is unaware or indifferent to the policy. The nurse manager should assume that the nurse knows and agrees with the policy, but may need some assistance or motivation to follow it.
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