The nurse is planning health teaching for a client starting on donepezil for Alzheimer’s disease (AD). For which side effect will the nurse teach the family to monitor?
Low oxygen saturation
High blood pressure
Elevated body temperature
Low pulse rate
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Low oxygen saturation is not a common side effect of donepezil. Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease by increasing the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. While it can have various side effects, respiratory issues like low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with this medication. Therefore, monitoring for low oxygen saturation is not a primary concern for patients starting donepezil.
Choice B Reason:
High blood pressure is also not a common side effect of donepezil. The medication primarily affects the central nervous system and does not typically cause significant changes in blood pressure. While it is always important to monitor a patient’s overall health, high blood pressure is not a side effect specifically linked to donepezil use. Therefore, it is not a primary focus for monitoring in this context.
Choice C Reason:
Elevated body temperature is not commonly associated with donepezil. The side effects of donepezil are more likely to involve gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as muscle cramps and fatigue. Elevated body temperature is not a typical reaction to this medication, so it is not a primary concern for monitoring.
Choice D Reason:
Low pulse rate, or bradycardia, is a known side effect of donepezil. Donepezil can increase the levels of acetylcholine, which can affect the heart’s electrical conduction system and lead to a slower heart rate. This can be particularly concerning in elderly patients or those with pre-existing heart conditions. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to teach the family to monitor the client’s pulse rate regularly and report any significant decreases to the healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A: He is NPO until the speech-language pathologist performs a swallowing evaluation.
When a client is admitted with a stroke, especially one affecting the left side, there is a significant risk of dysphagia, or difficulty swallowing. This can lead to choking and aspiration, which can cause pneumonia and other complications. Therefore, it is crucial to keep the client NPO (nothing by mouth) until a speech-language pathologist can perform a thorough swallowing evaluation. This ensures that the client can safely swallow without the risk of aspiration. The speech-language pathologist will assess the client’s ability to swallow different textures and consistencies of food and liquids and provide recommendations for safe feeding.
Choice B: Be sure to sit him up when you are feeding him to make him feel more natural.
While sitting the client up during feeding is a good practice to reduce the risk of aspiration, it is not sufficient on its own for a client who has just had a stroke. Without a proper swallowing evaluation, feeding the client could still pose a significant risk. Therefore, this choice is not the most appropriate response.
Choice C: You may give him a full-liquid diet, but please avoid solid foods until he gets stronger.
A full-liquid diet might seem like a safer option, but it still poses a risk of aspiration if the client has dysphagia. Without a swallowing evaluation, it is not safe to assume that the client can handle even a full-liquid diet. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate.
Choice D: Just be sure to add some thickener in his liquids to prevent choking and aspiration.
Adding thickener to liquids can help some clients with dysphagia, but it is not a one-size-fits-all solution. The appropriate consistency of liquids should be determined by a speech-language pathologist after a swallowing evaluation. Therefore, this choice is not appropriate without a prior assessment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Administering levetiracetam intravenously is not the first intervention. While levetiracetam is an antiepileptic drug used to control seizures, it is not the first-line treatment for an ongoing seizure, especially one lasting as long as 15 minutes. The priority in this situation is to stop the seizure activity immediately to prevent further complications, such as neuronal damage or status epilepticus. Levetiracetam may be used later for maintenance therapy, but it is not the initial emergency intervention.
Choice B Reason:
Obtaining a STAT electroencephalogram (EEG) is important for diagnosing and understanding the type of seizure activity, but it is not the first intervention. The immediate priority is to stop the seizure. An EEG can be performed after the seizure has been controlled to assess brain activity and guide further treatment. Delaying the administration of an anticonvulsant to perform an EEG could result in prolonged seizure activity and increased risk of complications.
Choice C Reason:
Administering lorazepam intravenously is the most appropriate first intervention. Lorazepam is a benzodiazepine that acts quickly to stop seizure activity. It is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus and prolonged seizures because of its rapid onset and effectiveness. Administering lorazepam helps to quickly terminate the seizure, reducing the risk of complications and stabilizing the patient for further evaluation and treatment.
Choice D Reason:
Obtaining a STAT 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG) is not the first intervention. While an ECG can provide valuable information about the patient’s cardiac status, it does not address the immediate need to stop the seizure. The priority is to administer an anticonvulsant to terminate the seizure. Once the seizure is controlled, an ECG can be performed to assess any potential cardiac issues, especially if the patient has a history of cardiac problems or if the seizure was triggered by a cardiac event.
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