The nurse is planning health teaching for a client starting on donepezil for Alzheimer’s disease (AD). For which side effect will the nurse teach the family to monitor?
Low oxygen saturation
High blood pressure
Elevated body temperature
Low pulse rate
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Low oxygen saturation is not a common side effect of donepezil. Donepezil is a cholinesterase inhibitor used to treat symptoms of Alzheimer’s disease by increasing the levels of acetylcholine in the brain. While it can have various side effects, respiratory issues like low oxygen saturation are not typically associated with this medication. Therefore, monitoring for low oxygen saturation is not a primary concern for patients starting donepezil.
Choice B Reason:
High blood pressure is also not a common side effect of donepezil. The medication primarily affects the central nervous system and does not typically cause significant changes in blood pressure. While it is always important to monitor a patient’s overall health, high blood pressure is not a side effect specifically linked to donepezil use. Therefore, it is not a primary focus for monitoring in this context.
Choice C Reason:
Elevated body temperature is not commonly associated with donepezil. The side effects of donepezil are more likely to involve gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea, as well as muscle cramps and fatigue. Elevated body temperature is not a typical reaction to this medication, so it is not a primary concern for monitoring.
Choice D Reason:
Low pulse rate, or bradycardia, is a known side effect of donepezil. Donepezil can increase the levels of acetylcholine, which can affect the heart’s electrical conduction system and lead to a slower heart rate. This can be particularly concerning in elderly patients or those with pre-existing heart conditions. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to teach the family to monitor the client’s pulse rate regularly and report any significant decreases to the healthcare provider.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 22-year-old client with asthma is considered a priority for pneumonia vaccination. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that can increase the risk of complications from pneumonia. Vaccination helps protect against pneumococcal infections, which can be particularly severe in individuals with underlying respiratory conditions.
Choice B reason: A healthy 72-year-old client is also a priority for pneumonia vaccination. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) recommends pneumococcal vaccination for all adults aged 65 years and older. Older adults are at higher risk for pneumococcal disease due to age-related decline in immune function.
Choice C reason: A client with well-controlled diabetes should be prioritized for pneumonia vaccination. Diabetes can weaken the immune system, making individuals more susceptible to infections, including pneumonia. Vaccination is an important preventive measure for individuals with chronic health conditions.
Choice D reason: A client who is taking medication for hypertension is not necessarily a priority for pneumonia vaccination based solely on their hypertension. While hypertension is a common condition, it does not directly increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. However, if the client has other risk factors or comorbidities, they may still be considered for vaccination.
Choice E reason: A client who had a cholecystectomy last year is not a priority for pneumonia vaccination based on this surgical history alone. A cholecystectomy, which is the removal of the gallbladder, does not increase the risk of pneumococcal disease. Priority for vaccination is typically given to individuals with chronic health conditions, older adults, and those with weakened immune systems.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: You May Bring Some Music to Listen to for Distraction
Bringing music for distraction is generally not a standard instruction given before an EEG. While listening to music might help some patients relax, it is not a critical part of the preparation for the test. The primary focus of EEG preparation is to ensure accurate readings of brain activity, which can be influenced by various factors such as medication and sleep.
Choice B: Do Not Take Any Sedatives 12 to 24 Hours Before the Test
Avoiding sedatives before an EEG is crucial because these medications can alter brain activity and affect the test results. Sedatives can suppress the electrical activity in the brain, leading to inaccurate readings. Therefore, it is essential for patients to avoid taking any sedatives 12 to 24 hours before the test to ensure the EEG captures the brain’s natural activity.
Choice C: You Will Need to Have Someone to Drive You Home
This instruction is typically given if the patient is expected to be sedated or if the test involves procedures that might impair their ability to drive. However, for a standard EEG, patients are usually not sedated, and there is no need for someone to drive them home. This instruction is more relevant for other types of medical procedures that involve sedation.
Choice D: Please Do Not Have Anything to Eat or Drink After Midnight
Fasting is not a standard requirement for an EEG. Patients are generally allowed to eat and drink before the test. However, they are often advised to avoid caffeine as it can affect brain activity. The instruction to avoid food and drink after midnight is more commonly associated with procedures that require anesthesia or sedation, not an EEG.
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