A nurse is assessing an adolescent female client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Hyperkalemia

Metrorrhagia

Lanugo

Tachycardia .

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

The correct answer/s is C

Choice A rationale: Hyperkalemia, or high potassium levels in the blood, is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. In fact, individuals with anorexia nervosa are more likely to experience hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, due to inadequate dietary intake and excessive loss of potassium through vomiting or use of diuretics1.

Choice B rationale: Metrorrhagia, or irregular menstrual bleeding between periods, can occur in females with anorexia nervosa due to hormonal imbalances caused by extreme weight loss and malnutrition. However, amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is more commonly observed1.

Choice C rationale: Lanugo, which is fine, soft hair that grows on the face and body, is a common finding in individuals with anorexia nervosa. It is the body’s response to severe weight loss and starvation as an attempt to provide insulation and maintain body temperature1.

Choice D rationale: Tachycardia, or a rapid heart rate, is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. Instead, individuals with anorexia nervosa often experience bradycardia, or a slower than normal heart rate, as the body’s response to starvation1.

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Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

Question: How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Step 1: 150 mg ÷ 50 mg

Step 2: 3 × 5 mL

Answer: 15 mL per dose.

A. "Fine. B. "I don't like it when you address me with that tone of voice." C. "We do this every day. D. "I know you can, but are you going to read it or not?" . H. re is the schedule, and I will expect you to be on time to your therapies."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale:

Avoids addressing the client's behavior: This response does not directly address the client's disrespectful tone of voice. It simply gives the client the schedule and expects them to comply. This could reinforce the client's belief that they can act out without consequences.

Misses an opportunity to set boundaries: Setting boundaries is essential when working with clients with BPD. This response does not establish a clear boundary regarding acceptable communication.

Does not promote therapeutic communication: This response does not encourage the client to share their feelings or explore the reasons behind their outburst. It shuts down communication rather than opening it up.

Choice B rationale:

Directly addresses the inappropriate behavior: This response assertively communicates to the client that their tone of voice is unacceptable. It sets a clear boundary regarding respectful communication.

Models appropriate communication: The nurse models respectful communication by using a calm and assertive tone of voice. This can help the client learn to communicate more effectively.

Promotes self-awareness: This response may prompt the client to reflect on their behavior and the impact it has on others. It can help them develop better self-awareness and emotional regulation skills.

Choice C rationale:

Focuses on the nurse's feelings: This response shifts the focus away from the client's behavior and onto the nurse's feelings. It can make the client feel defensive and less likely to engage in productive communication.

May escalate the situation: Asking "why" s can sometimes put clients on the defensive and lead to further conflict. It's generally more helpful to focus on the present behavior and its impact.

Choice D rationale:

Condescending and challenging: This response comes across as condescending and challenging. It's likely to make the client feel defensive and resentful.

Not therapeutic: This response does not promote a sense of trust or rapport between the nurse and the client. It's unlikely to lead to productive communication or behavior change.

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A nurse is assessing an adolescent female client who has anorexia nervosa. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is preparing to administer amantadine 150 mg PO every 12 hr. The available medication is amantadine 50 mg/5 mL syrup. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

Correct Answer is ["15"]

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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