A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior positions
The Correct Answer is A
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus being at the level of the ischial spines is the correct interpretation of 0 station. In the station system, when the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, it is referred to as 0 station.
B. The largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet is generally represented by the complete passage of the fetus through the birth canal. This is more indicative of full cervical dilation (10 cm) rather than a specific station.
C. The posterior fontanel being palpable is not directly related to the concept of station. Fontanel palpation is more associated with determining fetal head position.
D. The fetal head being in the left occiput posterior position is related to fetal position, not station. The station describes the descent of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer is D. "There are so many variables that you'll have to ask your obstetrician."
A. "It's too soon for you to be worrying about this now" dismisses the client's concerns and does not provide useful information. It's important to address the client's question and offer guidance.
B. "A repeat cesarean birth is safer for both you and your baby" may not be accurate for all situations. The decision on the mode of delivery (vaginal birth after cesarean - VBAC or repeat cesarean) depends on various factors, and a blanket statement may not apply.
C. "The primary consideration is what type of incision was performed this time" is partially correct.
The type of uterine incision in the current cesarean birth is one factor to consider, but it is not the only consideration. Other factors, such as the reason for the previous cesarean, maternal health, and the obstetrician's assessment, also play a role.
D. "There are so many variables that you'll have to ask your obstetrician" is the most appropriate response.
The decision regarding the mode of delivery in subsequent pregnancies after a cesarean is individualized and depends on various factors. The obstetrician will consider the woman's health, the reason for the previous cesarean, the type of uterine incision, and other relevant factors to provide personalized guidance.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is A.
A. Swelling of the face: Facial swelling, especially sudden or severe swelling, could be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious pregnancy complication characterized by high blood pressure and organ dysfunction. Any new or significant facial swelling should be promptly reported to the healthcare provider for evaluation.
B. Varicose veins in the calves: Varicose veins are a common occurrence during pregnancy due to increased pressure on the veins. While they can cause discomfort, they are generally not considered a significant concern unless there are signs of complications, such as inflammation or blood clots.
C. Nonpitting 1+ ankle edema: Mild ankle edema is relatively common during pregnancy and may not be concerning unless it becomes severe, sudden, or is associated with other symptoms. Nonpitting edema is generally less concerning than pitting edema but should still be monitored.
D. Hyperpigmentation of the cheeks: Hyperpigmentation, often referred to as the "mask of pregnancy" or melasma, is a common and benign condition during pregnancy. While it may be bothersome to some individuals, it is not typically a concern that requires immediate reporting to the provider.
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