A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor and notes that the presenting part is at 0 station. Which of the following is the correct interpretation of this clinical finding?
The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
The largest fetal diameter has passed through the pelvic outlet.
The posterior fontanel is palpable.
The fetal head is in the left occiput posterior positions
The Correct Answer is A
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus is at the level of the ischial spines.
A. The lowermost portion of the fetus being at the level of the ischial spines is the correct interpretation of 0 station. In the station system, when the presenting part is at the level of the ischial spines, it is referred to as 0 station.
B. The largest fetal diameter passing through the pelvic outlet is generally represented by the complete passage of the fetus through the birth canal. This is more indicative of full cervical dilation (10 cm) rather than a specific station.
C. The posterior fontanel being palpable is not directly related to the concept of station. Fontanel palpation is more associated with determining fetal head position.
D. The fetal head being in the left occiput posterior position is related to fetal position, not station. The station describes the descent of the presenting part in relation to the ischial spines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is B. Position the client with one hip elevated.
A. Having the client void is a good practice, but it is not the priority action in this situation. The client's vital signs suggest a potential issue with uteroplacental perfusion, and repositioning the client should be the priority.
B. Positioning the client with one hip elevated is the priority action.
The vital signs, specifically the low blood pressure, may be indicative of aortocaval compression (supine hypotension). Elevating one hip helps alleviate this compression, improving blood flow and potentially addressing the decreased blood pressure.
C. Asking the client if she needs pain medication is important, but repositioning the client takes precedence due to the potential issue with blood pressure and uteroplacental perfusion.
D. Notifying the provider is important, but repositioning the client to improve blood flow should be done first. The provider may be notified afterward based on the client's response and ongoing assessment.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Percutaneous umbilical blood sampling (PUBS) is not appropriate. This invasive procedure involves sampling blood from the umbilical cord and is not typically used in the context of a positive contraction stress test.
Choice B Reason:
Amnioinfusion is not appropriate. Amnioinfusion is a procedure in which sterile fluid is infused into the amniotic cavity to alleviate conditions such as oligohydramnios. It is not a primary diagnostic test for assessing fetal well-being.
Choice C Reason:
Biophysical profile (BPP) is appropriate. The biophysical profile is a diagnostic test that assesses the well-being of the fetus by evaluating various parameters, including fetal heart rate, fetal breathing movements, fetal movements, fetal tone, and the amniotic fluid volume. This test provides additional information to assess fetal well-being and can help guide decisions about the timing and mode of delivery.
Choice D Reason:
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS) is inappropriate. CVS is a prenatal test used for diagnosing certain genetic conditions but is not indicated in the context of a positive contraction stress test.
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