In the context of diabetes incidence and classification, which statement should maternity nurses be aware of?
Type 1 diabetes is the most prevalent.
Type 2 diabetes often remains undiagnosed.
Type 1 diabetes can transition to type 2 during pregnancy.
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) implies that the woman will require insulin treatment until 6 weeks postpartum.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While Type 1 diabetes is a significant health concern, it is not the most prevalent form of diabetes. Type 2 diabetes is more common, affecting a larger proportion of the population.
Choice B rationale
Type 2 diabetes often remains undiagnosed because its symptoms can be subtle and develop slowly. People with Type 2 diabetes may not recognize these symptoms as signs of high blood sugar, leading to a delay in diagnosis and treatment.
Choice C rationale
Type 1 diabetes cannot transition to Type 2 diabetes. These are distinct conditions with different underlying causes. Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune condition, while Type 2 diabetes is primarily associated with lifestyle factors and genetic predisposition.
Choice D rationale
Gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) does not imply that the woman will require insulin treatment until 6 weeks postpartum. While some women with GDM may require insulin during pregnancy, this is not always the case. Furthermore, GDM usually resolves after delivery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A baseline BP of 140/85 mmHg is considered high, but a current BP of 129/80 mmHg is within the normal range. Therefore, this would not typically indicate a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice B rationale
A significant increase in blood pressure from a baseline of 110/70 mmHg to a current BP of 145/85 mmHg could indicate a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice C rationale
A slight increase in blood pressure from a baseline of 120/80 mmHg to a current BP of 126/85 mmHg would not typically indicate a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Choice D rationale
An increase in blood pressure from a baseline of 110/60 mmHg to a current BP of 120/63 mmHg would not typically indicate a risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is: d. Right lower
Choice A: Right upper
Reason: The right upper quadrant is not typically where fetal heart tones are auscultated when the fetal back is on the right side and the head is in the lower part of the uterus. This area is more likely to be associated with the breech presentation if the fetus’s head is in the fundus.
Choice B: Left upper
Reason: The left upper quadrant would be considered if the fetal back was on the left side and the head was in the fundus. Since the nurse palpated the fetal back on the right side, this option is not applicable.
Choice C: Left lower
Reason: The left lower quadrant would be relevant if the fetal back was on the left side and the head was in the lower part of the uterus. Given the fetal back is on the right side, this is not the correct location.
Choice D: Right lower
Reason: The correct answer is the right lower quadrant. When the nurse palpates a round, firm, movable part (likely the head) in the fundus and a long, smooth surface (the back) on the right side, it indicates that the fetus is in a cephalic (head-down) position with its back on the right. Therefore, the fetal heart tones are best auscultated in the right lower quadrant.
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