In assessing an adult client, the nurse calculates the body mass index (BMI) as 14 kg/m2. Which nursing problem should be included in this client's plan of care?
Reference Range:
Underweight: BMI is less than 18.5; Normal weight: BMI is 18.5 to 24.9; Overweight: BMI is 25 to 29.9; Obese: BMI is 30 or more
Fluid volume excess.
Unbalanced nutrition, less than body needs.
Unbalanced nutrition, greater than body needs.
Fluid volume deficit.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Reason:
Fluid volume excess is incorrect. Fluid volume excess refers to an overabundance of fluid in the body, leading to symptoms such as edema, weight gain, and hypertension. However, a BMI of 14 kg/m^2 indicates underweight, not fluid volume excess. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice B Reason:
Unbalanced nutrition, less than body needs is correct. A BMI of less than 18.5 indicates underweight according to the provided reference range. Underweight individuals often do not consume enough nutrients to meet their body's needs, leading to potential nutritional deficiencies. Therefore, the nursing problem of "Unbalanced nutrition, less than body needs" is appropriate for addressing the client's low BMI.
Choice C Reason:
Unbalanced nutrition, greater than body needs is incorrect. This choice would be more applicable if the client's BMI indicated overweight or obesity, as it suggests an excess intake of nutrients relative to the body's needs. However, a BMI of 14 kg/m^2 indicates underweight, not excess weight. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Choice D Reason:
Fluid volume deficit is incorrect. Fluid volume deficit refers to a decreased amount of fluid in the body, leading to symptoms such as dehydration, decreased urine output, and hypotension. However, a low BMI does not necessarily indicate fluid volume deficit; it primarily reflects undernutrition. Therefore, this choice is incorrect.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Chronic pancreatitis is incorrect. Chronic pancreatitis typically presents with persistent, dull abdominal pain that may radiate to the back, often aggravated by eating rather than relieved by it. The pain associated with chronic pancreatitis is not typically described as gnawing or relieved by eating.
Choice B Reason:
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is correct. Peptic ulcer disease involves the development of open sores (ulcers) in the lining of the stomach (gastric ulcers) or the upper part of the small intestine (duodenal ulcers). The pain associated with PUD typically occurs in the epigastric region (upper abdomen) and can be described as gnawing, burning, or dull. The pain tends to worsen when the stomach is empty (hunger pains) and is relieved by eating or taking antacids. These symptoms are due to the increase in gastric acid secretion, which exacerbates the ulcer's irritation when the stomach is empty and is neutralized when food buffers the acid. Therefore, the presentation described is consistent with peptic ulcer disease (PUD).
Choice C Reason:
Esophagitis is incorrect. Esophagitis is inflammation of the esophagus and may present with symptoms such as heartburn, difficulty swallowing, or chest pain behind the breastbone. However, the symptoms described, particularly the worsening of pain when hungry and improvement after eating, are not typical of esophagitis.
Choice D Reason:
Gastroesophageal reflux (GERD) is incorrect. While gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) can cause epigastric discomfort or heartburn, the symptoms described in the scenario are more indicative of pain related to hunger and relief after eating, which is more characteristic of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Additionally, GERD symptoms are typically worsened by eating, lying down, or bending over, rather than improved.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Purulent secretions from eyes and nares is incorrect. Purulent secretions, which are thick and yellow or green in color, typically indicate the presence of a bacterial infection rather than allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis is more commonly associated with clear nasal discharge, although it can sometimes be accompanied by a mild increase in nasal secretions.
Choice B Reason:
Snoring and bilateral, pale gray nodules is incorrect. Snoring and bilateral, pale gray nodules suggest adenoid hypertrophy rather than allergic rhinitis. Adenoid hypertrophy refers to enlargement of the adenoids, which are lymphoid tissue located in the back of the nasal cavity. Enlarged adenoids can lead to snoring and the presence of grayish nodules upon examination of the nasopharynx.
Choice C Reason:
Intranasal edema and swelling of turbinates are correct. Intranasal edema (swelling inside the nose) and swelling of turbinates are characteristic features of allergic rhinitis. Allergic rhinitis results from inflammation of the nasal mucosa in response to exposure to allergens, leading to nasal congestion and swelling of the turbinates.
Choice D Reason:
Eye tearing and thick yellow nasal drainage is incorrect. Eye tearing and thick yellow nasal drainage suggest the presence of sinusitis rather than allergic rhinitis. Sinusitis is characterized by inflammation of the sinuses, which can result in symptoms such as facial pain or pressure, thick nasal discharge, and eye tearing due to sinus pressure affecting the tear ducts.
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