In a clinical setting, a patient with a chronic wound is scheduled for debridement. Which of the following is the primary purpose of wound debridement?
To increase blood flow to the wound site
To remove necrotic tissue to promote healing
To apply antibiotics directly to the wound
To prevent scar formation
The Correct Answer is B
A. To increase blood flow to the wound site: While debridement may indirectly help improve blood flow by removing barriers to healing, its primary purpose is not to increase blood flow. Increased blood flow is a result of improved wound bed conditions rather than the main goal of the procedure.
B. To remove necrotic tissue to promote healing: The primary purpose of wound debridement is to remove necrotic (dead) or devitalized tissue from the wound bed. This process promotes healing by creating a clean wound environment, facilitating granulation tissue formation, and reducing the risk of infection, making this option the most accurate.
C. To apply antibiotics directly to the wound: While antibiotics may be part of the overall wound care plan, debridement itself is not intended for the direct application of antibiotics. The focus is on removing non-viable tissue rather than applying medications during the procedure.
D. To prevent scar formation: While proper wound care, including debridement, can help improve healing outcomes and potentially minimize scarring, the primary aim of debridement is not to prevent scars. Scarring is influenced by multiple factors, including the type of wound, depth, and individual healing responses.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Move the client's limbs through their complete range of motion: This action describes passive range-of-motion exercises, where the nurse assists the client in moving their limbs. While this is beneficial for clients who cannot move independently, it does not align with the plan for isometric exercises, which focus on muscle contraction without joint movement.
B. Have the client move each limb independently through its complete range of motion: This describes active range-of-motion exercises, which involve the client actively moving their limbs. Although these exercises are important for maintaining joint flexibility and preventing stiffness, they are not isometric exercises, which are intended to be performed without changing the length of the muscle.
C. Ask the client to move her arms and legs while applying slight resistance: This action combines movement with resistance training, which is not consistent with isometric exercises. Isometric exercises focus solely on muscle contraction without joint movement or changing muscle length, making this option inappropriate for the prescribed plan of care.
D. Instruct the client to tighten muscle groups for a short period, and then relax: This accurately describes isometric exercises, where the client contracts specific muscle groups (e.g., arms, legs, abdomen) without moving the joints. These exercises help maintain muscle strength and prevent atrophy while the client is on bedrest. The nurse should guide the client to perform these contractions for a few seconds, followed by relaxation, as directed by the plan of care.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Partial assistance required for daily activities: A score lower than 6 indicates some level of dependence or the need for assistance, which does not apply to a score of 6.
B. Complete dependence on others for daily activities: A score of 0 on the Katz Index would reflect complete dependence. A score of 6 indicates full independence.
C. Full independence in performing daily activities: A score of 6 on the Katz Index signifies that the individual can perform all six activities of daily living independently, demonstrating a high level of functional ability.
D. Moderate assistance required for daily activities: A score of 6 indicates total independence. A score of 3 or lower would suggest moderate assistance is required, making this option incorrect.
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