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An older client recently transferred to a rehabilitation facility after aortic valve replacement surgery is experiencing anxiety and difficulty adjusting to the transition. The healthcare provider prescribes an antidepressant and a mild sedative for sleep. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care?

Obtain a blood pressure reading before the client gets out of bed.

Monitor and record the client's urinary output every day.

Provide the client with teaching regarding a cardiac diet.

Assess the client's vital signs every 4 hours when awake.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A: Obtain a blood pressure reading before the client gets out of bed. This is the most important intervention, as it can prevent or detect orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure when changing position from lying to standing. Orthostatic hypotension can cause dizziness, fainting, or falls, and it can be caused by medications, dehydration, or cardiac problems.

Choice B: Monitor and record the client's urinary output every day. This is not the most important intervention, as it does not address the client's anxiety or adjustment issues. The urinary output should be monitored for signs of fluid balance, kidney function, or infection, but it is not a priority for this client.

Choice C: Provide the client with teaching regarding a cardiac diet. This is not the most important intervention, as it does not address the client's anxiety or adjustment issues. The cardiac diet should be taught to promote heart health, lower cholesterol, and reduce sodium intake, but it is not a priority for this client.

Choice D: Assess the client's vital signs every 4 hours when awake. This is not the most important intervention, as it does not address the client's anxiety or adjustment issues. The vital signs should be assessed for signs of infection, pain, or hemodynamic instability, but they are not a priority for this client.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A: An adult client with a tracheal tube draining clear, pale red liquid drainage. This client should not be assessed last, as they may have a potential airway obstruction or infection. The tracheal tube drainage should be monitored for color, amount, and consistency, and suctioned as needed.

Choice B: An older client with dark red drainage on a postoperative dressing, but no drainage in the Hemovac. This client should not be assessed last, as they may have a potential hemorrhage or wound dehiscence. The postoperative dressing and Hemovac should be monitored for color, amount, and odor, and changed as needed.

Choice C: An adult client with no postoperative drainage in the Jackson-Pratt drain with the bulb compressed. This client can be assessed last, as they have no signs of complications or problems. The Jackson-Pratt drain is a closed suction device that collects fluid from a surgical site. The bulb should be compressed to create negative pressure and facilitate drainage.

Choice D: An older client with a distended abdomen and no drainage from the nasogastric tube. This client should not be assessed last, as they may have a potential bowel obstruction or perforation. The nasogastric tube is inserted through the nose into the stomach to decompress gas and fluid. The abdomen should be monitored for size, shape, and bowel sounds, and the nasogastric tube should be checked for patency and placement.

A. Advise the client to place one nitroglycerin tablet under his tongue as a precaution. B. Tell the client to have someone bring him to an emergency department immediately. C. Instruct the client to increase his intake of oral fluids until the skin flushing is relieved. D. Reassure the client that skin flushing is a common side effect of the medication.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A: Advising the client to place one nitroglycerin tablet under his tongue as a precaution is a dangerous action for the nurse, as this can cause severe hypotension and cardiovascular collapse due to the interaction between tadalafil and nitroglycerin. This is a contraindicated choice.

Choice B: Telling the client to have someone bring him to an emergency department immediately is an unnecessary action for the nurse, as there is no evidence of any serious adverse reaction or complication from tadalafil. This is an overreaction choice.

Choice C: Instructing the client to increase his intake of oral fluids until the skin flushing is relieved is not an appropriate action for the nurse, as this does not address the cause of the flushing, which is vasodilation due to tadalafil. This is a distractor choice.

Choice D: Reassuring the client that skin flushing is a common side effect of the medication is an appropriate action for the nurse, as this can calm the client and educate him about the expected effects of tadalafil. Therefore, this is the correct choice.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

After receiving report, the nurse can most safely plan to assess which client last?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A male client reports to the on-call clinic nurse that he took tadalafil 10 mg by mouth two hours ago and his skin now feels flushed. He reports a history of stable angina, but denies experiencing any current or recent chest pain. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client with cirrhosis of the liver is admitted with complications related to end stage liver disease. Which intervention(s) should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply.)

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A 6-week-old infant with pyloric stenosis is scheduled for a pyloromyotomy. Which pre-operative nursing action has highest priority?