Exhibits

The nurse reviews the history and physical, the nurses' notes, and the flow sheet to help determine what is causing the client's symptoms.

For each listed finding, click to indicate whether the finding is associated with arthritis or carpal tunnel syndrome. Each column must have at least one response option selected.

Can be caused by aging

Inflammatory disease process

Finger numbness

Experience difficulty with fine motors movements

May have a genetic component

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"A"},"C":{"answers":"B"},"D":{"answers":"A,B"},"E":{"answers":"A"}}

Rationale:

Can be caused by aging: Both arthritis and carpal tunnel syndrome are linked to aging. In arthritis, wear and tear on joints over time causes conditions like osteoarthritis. Carpal tunnel syndrome increases with age due to changes in wrist anatomy and nerve compression.
Inflammatory disease process: Arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, is inflammatory, causing joint pain and damage. Carpal tunnel syndrome, however, is caused by mechanical compression of the median nerve, not by inflammation.
Finger numbness: Numbness in the fingers is common with carpal tunnel syndrome due to median nerve compression. While arthritis can cause pain and stiffness in joints, it does not typically cause finger numbness unless there's significant nerve involvement.
Experience difficulty with fine motor movements: Both conditions can impair fine motor skills. Arthritis causes pain and stiffness in joints, while carpal tunnel syndrome affects nerve function, leading to weakness and difficulty performing precise tasks like writing or holding small objects.
May have a genetic component: Arthritis has a genetic predisposition. Carpal tunnel syndrome does not have a strong genetic link but can be influenced by individual anatomical factors, such as a narrower carpal tunnel.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

A. Ask the client if she has any alcohol in the room at this time: This is an essential step in assessing for immediate safety and contraband that may impact her treatment plan, especially considering her symptoms and possible withdrawal risk.

B. Administer a PRN prescription for an antianxiety drug: This could mask symptoms of alcohol withdrawal or interact negatively with alcohol. Medication should be given only after thorough assessment and consultation.

C. Inform the family that they are enabling the client: While family education is important, using accusatory language like "enabling" can damage therapeutic relationships. A nonjudgmental, supportive approach is better.

D. Observe for signs to determine if client is inebriated: Monitoring for inebriation supports accurate clinical assessment and decisions about withdrawal protocols, safety, and medication timing.

E. Schedule a conference with the client and family members: A joint meeting allows open discussion, identifies care goals, and promotes understanding and support from all parties involved.

A. Palpate the client's suprapubic area for distention. B. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity. C. Instruct in effective techniques to cleanse the glans penis. D. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Palpate the client's suprapubic area for distention: The symptoms suggest possible urinary retention, which could be a result of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) or another obstruction. Palpating the suprapubic area for distention is important to assess for urinary retention and determine if the bladder is full.

B. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity: Although a urinary tract infection can cause urinary symptoms, the client's presentation is more likely indicative of a physical obstruction such as BPH. A culture might be needed later if infection is suspected.

C. Instruct in effective techniques to cleanse the glans penis: Proper hygiene is important, especially in older adult men, but this is not the most relevant action for the symptoms described. The focus should be on assessing for possible urinary retention or obstruction.

D. Advise the client to maintain a voiding diary for one week: While a voiding diary may provide useful information for monitoring symptoms over time, the immediate priority is to assess for urinary retention and bladder distention.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["A","D","E"]

Explanation

An older adult male client arrives at the clinic reporting that his bladder always feels full. The client also reports a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating the urine stream. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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