Exhibits

The nurse is assessing the client to update the plan of care.

Choose the most likely options for the information missing from the statement by selecting from the lists of options provided.

The nurse determines that the client's is experiencing
dropdown
, and the blood pressure changes are the result of
dropdown

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}

Blank 1: Adverse drug reaction: The client’s symptoms of dizziness, headache, burning sensation, redness, flushing, hives, and itching after the administration of vancomycin indicate a severe allergic reaction, likely "Red Man Syndrome," which is an adverse drug reaction.

Blank 2: Antibiotic: The blood pressure changes (initial drop to 108/46 mmHg) are most likely due to the adverse reaction to the vancomycin infusion. The hypotension occurred as a direct result of the antibiotic administration.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Taking doxycycline and birth control pills at different times is not necessary; the concern is about the interaction between the two medications rather than timing.
B. Doxycycline can reduce the effectiveness of birth control pills, so advising the client of this interaction is important for preventing unintended pregnancy.
C. There is no specific contraindication to tetracyclines with birth control; the primary concern is the interaction and its effect on efficacy.
D. There is no need for the client to stop taking birth control pills; rather, additional contraceptive methods should be considered.

A. Notify the healthcare provider. B. Administer a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug. C. Obtain orthostatic blood pressure readings. D. Collect a capillary glucose level.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. Tremors can be a side effect of pregabalin and may indicate a need to adjust the dosage or reconsider the medication; notifying the healthcare provider is appropriate.
B. Administering an antianxiety drug without consulting the healthcare provider may not address the underlying cause of the tremors and could lead to further complications.
C. Orthostatic blood pressure readings are not directly related to the symptom of hand tremors caused by pregabalin.
D. While glucose levels could influence symptoms, tremors are more likely a side effect of pregabalin rather than an indication of altered glucose levels.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A female client who is starting a new prescription for doxycycline hydate tells the nurse that she takes birth control pills. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client who is receiving pregabalin for fibromyalgia complains of tremors in the hands. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client is scheduled for a spiral computed tomography (CT) scan with contrast to evaluate for pulmonary embolism. Which information in the client's history requires follow-up by the nurse?

The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client with metastatic cancer who is prescribed morphine for bone pain. Which information from the client indicates to the nurse an understanding of the medication?

A client is receiving tamsulosin, an alpha-adrenergic blocking agent, for the management of urinary retention due to benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?

Levothyroxine sodium is prescribed for a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse should instruct the client to report which symptom because it indicates that the client is taking too much levothyroxine sodium?

Exhibits The nurse prepares to give 2 units of insulin lispro. Which should the nurse double check with a second nurse? Select all that apply.

Furosemide is prescribed for a client with a history of heart failure (HF). Which foods should the nurse encourage this client to eat?