During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, which of the following occurs?
Urine output (UO) completely stops.
Urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours.
Urine output (UO) is not measured.
Urine output (UO) is greater than 500 mL/24 hours.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Urine output (UO) does not completely stop during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. While it is significantly reduced, some urine production still occurs. Complete cessation of urine output is known as anuria, which is a more severe condition and a medical emergency.
Anuria may occur in the most severe cases of acute renal failure, but it is not the defining characteristic of the oliguric phase.
It's crucial to distinguish between oliguria and anuria, as their management approaches differ significantly.
Choice B rationale:
During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours. This is the defining characteristic of this phase.
The decrease in urine output is due to damage to the kidneys' filtering units, known as nephrons. As a result, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products and excess fluids effectively from the blood, leading to their accumulation in the body.
This reduced urine output can lead to various complications, including fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and a buildup of waste products in the blood (uremia).
Choice C rationale:
Urine output (UO) is always measured during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. It is a vital clinical indicator to monitor the severity of kidney dysfunction and guide treatment decisions.
Accurate measurement of urine output is essential for assessing fluid balance, kidney function, and the effectiveness of treatment interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Urine output (UO) is not greater than 500 mL/24 hours during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. A urine output greater than 500 mL/24 hours would indicate a non-oliguric phase of acute renal failure or a potential recovery phase.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Diagnosing a fetus with a genetic disorder is outside the scope of practice for nurses. This task requires specialized training and expertise in genetics and diagnostic procedures, typically held by physicians such as geneticists, maternal-fetal medicine specialists, or genetic counselors.
Nurses play a crucial role in genetic counseling, but their responsibilities focus on:
Educating patients about genetic risks and testing options.
Obtaining informed consent for genetic testing.
Coordinating genetic testing appointments and procedures.
Providing emotional support and counseling to patients and families.
Facilitating communication between patients, families, and other healthcare providers.
Advocating for patients' rights and needs.
Choice B rationale:
Providing emotional support is a core component of nursing care, including genetic counseling. Nurses are trained to provide empathetic and compassionate support to patients and families who are facing the challenges of genetic conditions. This includes:
Active listening and validation of feelings.
Assisting with coping mechanisms and stress management.
Connecting patients with support groups and resources.
Promoting resilience and hope.
Choice C rationale:
Identifying at-risk families is a vital role for nurses in genetic counseling. By recognizing families with a history of genetic disorders or those who exhibit risk factors, nurses can initiate early intervention and preventive measures. This includes:
Taking a thorough family history.
Assessing risk factors and potential genetic concerns.
Educating families about their potential risks.
Referring families for genetic counseling and testing as appropriate.
Choice D rationale:
Collaboration with other healthcare providers and referral for specialized care are essential aspects of genetic counseling. Nurses often work within interdisciplinary teams to provide comprehensive care for patients with genetic concerns. This includes:
Communicating with geneticists, genetic counselors, and other specialists.
Coordinating referrals for genetic testing, counseling, and treatment.
Ensuring continuity of care across different healthcare settings.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A positive contraction stress test (CST) indicates a potential problem with the fetal heart's response to uterine contractions, not spontaneous accelerations.
It's not consistent with the findings in this scenario.
Choice C rationale:
A negative CST would show no late decelerations in response to contractions, but it's not relevant here because contractions weren't induced.
Choice D rationale:
A non-reactive NST lacks the required accelerations, which are present in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Definition of reactive NST: A reactive NST is a reassuring fetal heart test that demonstrates a healthy fetal heart rate response to fetal movement. It's characterized by two or more fetal heart rate accelerations of at least 15 beats per minute (bpm) lasting at least 15 seconds within a 20-minute period.
Significance of the findings: The presence of three accelerations measuring 15 bpm by 15 seconds within 20 minutes meets the criteria for a reactive NST. This suggests that the fetal nervous system is functioning well and responding appropriately to stimuli, indicating a healthy fetal heart rate pattern.
Nurse's reporting: The nurse should accurately report this finding to the provider as a "reactive nonstress test (NST)." This information is crucial for clinical decision-making regarding the ongoing management of the pregnancy.
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