During shift report a colleague states that there is 350 mLs remaining in the client's IV and it has to infuse for 2 more hours. The nurse confirms this matches the order. If the drip factor is 12 gtts/ml, what is the current IV rate? DOCUMENT ANSWER IN THIS FORMAT: RATE gtts/min (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Use a leading zero if it applies. Do not use a trailing zero.)
The Correct Answer is ["35"]
Calculate the total infusion time in minutes.
Infusion time in minutes = 2 hours × 60 minutes/hour
= 120 minutes
Calculate the total number of drops to be infused.
The total volume remaining is 350 mL
Drip factor is 12 gtts/mL.
Total drops = Total volume (mL) × Drop factor (gtts/mL)
Total drops = 350 mL × 12 gtts/mL
= 4200 gtts
Calculate the IV flow rate in drops per minute (gtts/min).
IV rate (gtts/min) = Total drops / Total infusion time (minutes)
= 4200 gtts / 120 minutes
= 35
=35 gtts/min
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Administer an antidiarrheal medication: Atropine is an anticholinergic agent that reduces gastrointestinal motility, often leading to constipation rather than diarrhea. Administering an antidiarrheal would not be appropriate and could cause harmful effects if unnecessary.
B. Assess the pupils for constriction: Atropine causes pupil dilation (mydriasis), not constriction. Checking for constriction would not align with the expected pharmacologic effects of the drug and is not a priority assessment after administration.
C. Provide frequent oral care: Atropine inhibits secretions as part of its anticholinergic effects, often leading to dry mouth (xerostomia). Frequent oral care helps maintain mucous membrane integrity and client comfort, making this an appropriate nursing action following administration.
D. Insert an indwelling catheter: Although atropine can cause urinary retention, especially in older adults, catheter insertion is not routinely required after administration; a single 0.5 mg IV dose is less likely to cause significant urinary retention requiring catheterization. It should only be considered if the client shows clinical signs of acute urinary retention.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. surgery has caused an episode of supraventricular tachycardia: While stress or surgery can trigger arrhythmias, the ECG shown demonstrates a sinus tachycardia pattern (narrow QRS complexes with identifiable P waves before each QRS), not supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), which typically has a very rapid, regular rhythm often without visible P waves.
B. is febrile which is causing the heart rate to be elevated: The client has a temperature of 102°F (38.8°C), which can increase metabolic demand and lead to sinus tachycardia. Fever is a common and expected cause of elevated heart rate, especially when accompanied by infection, such as the client’s post-op wound infection.
C. is in heart failure and the heart rate is elevated to compensate: There is no evidence from the scenario (no dyspnea, crackles, edema, or reduced BP) that supports heart failure. The elevated HR is more directly related to the fever and infection, not cardiac decompensation.
D. probably has a low oxygen saturation causing an increased respiratory rate: The respiratory rate is slightly elevated (22/min), but there is no mention of hypoxia or oxygen saturation levels. Tachycardia secondary to hypoxia would require clinical indicators of respiratory distress or desaturation, which are not demonstrated.
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