Assessment of a woman in labor reveals cervical dilation of 3 cm, cervical effacement of 30%, and contractions occurring every 8 to 10 minutes, lasting about 30 seconds. The nurse determines that this client is in:
Select one:
Latent phase of the first stage of labor.
Transition phase of the first stage of labor.
Perineal phase of the second stage of labor.
Active phase of the first stage of labor.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A Reason: Latent phase of the first stage of labor. This is because this phase is characterized by mild and irregular contractions, slow cervical dilation (up to 4 cm), minimal cervical effacement (up to 40%), and minimal discomfort or pain. The latent phase is also known as the early phase or preparatory phase of labor.
Choice B Reason: Transition phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that describes a different phase with different characteristics. The transition phase is marked by strong and frequent contractions, rapid cervical dilation (from 8 to 10 cm), complete cervical effacement (100%), and intense discomfort or pain. The transition phase is also known as the terminal phase or acceleration phase of labor.
Choice C Reason: Perineal phase of the second stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that refers to another stage and phase with different features. The second stage of labor begins with complete cervical dilation (10 cm) and ends with delivery of the baby. The perineal phase is the last part of the second stage, where the baby's head crowns and emerges through the vaginal opening.
Choice D Reason: Active phase of the first stage of labor. This is an incorrect answer that indicates another phase with different atributes. The active phase is characterized by moderate and regular contractions, progressive cervical dilation (from 4 to 8 cm), increased cervical effacement (from 40% to 80%), and increased discomfort or pain. The active phase is also known as the middle phase or dilatation phase of labor.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Grunting and nasal flaring. These are signs of respiratory distress in newborns, which indicate that their oxygenation needs are not being met. Grunting and nasal flaring. This is because grunting and nasal flaring are signs of respiratory distress in newborns, which indicate inadequate oxygenation and ventilation. Grunting is a noise made by the newborn when exhaling, which reflects an atempt to keep the alveoli open and increase lung volume.
Nasal flaring is a widening of the nostrils when inhaling, which reflects an effort to reduce airway resistance and increase airflow.
Choice B Reason: Acrocyanosis. This is not a sign of respiratory distress in newborns, but rather a common condition called acrocyanosis. Acrocyanosis means bluish discoloration of the hands and feet due to poor peripheral circulation in response to cold exposure or stress. It does not affect oxygenation or ventilation and usually disappears within 24 to 48 hours after birth.
Choice C Reason: Abdominal breathing. This is not a sign of respiratory distress in newborns, but rather a normal patern of breathing for them. Abdominal breathing means that the newborn's abdomen rises and falls with each breath, which reflects the use of the diaphragm as the primary respiratory muscle.
Choice D Reason: Respiratory rate of 54 breaths/minute. This is not a sign of respiratory distress in newborns, but rather a normal range of respiratory rate for them. A normal respiratory rate for a newborn ranges from 40 to 60 breaths per minute.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Physiologic anemia due to maternal increased plasma volume. This is an incorrect answer that refers to a different condition that affects hemoglobin levels, not blood pressure. Physiologic anemia is a condition where the maternal plasma volume increases more than the red blood cell mass during pregnancy, which dilutes the hemoglobin concentration and lowers the hematocrit value. Physiologic anemia does not cause significant symptoms or complications in pregnant women, as it is an adaptive mechanism that enhances oxygen delivery and prevents fluid overload.
Choice B Reason: Pressure of the gravid uterus on the maternal inferior vena cava and aorta. This is because this statement explains the cause of supine hypotensive syndrome, which is a condition where lying flat on the back causes compression of the major blood vessels by the gravid uterus, which reduces venous return and cardiac output, which lowers blood pressure and perfusion to vital organs. Supine hypotensive syndrome can cause symptoms such as dizziness, lightheadedness, nausea, pallor, or syncope in pregnant women, especially in the third trimester.
Choice C Reason: Pressure of the presenting fetal part on the maternal diaphragm. This is an incorrect answer that indicates a different condition that affects respiratory function, not blood pressure. Pressure of the presenting fetal part on the maternal diaphragm is a result of cephalic engagement or lightening, which occurs when the fetal head descends into the pelvis and occupies more space in the abdominal cavity. Pressure of the presenting fetal part on the maternal diaphragm can cause symptoms such as dyspnea, heartburn, or rib pain in pregnant women.
Choice D Reason: A 50% increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy. This is an incorrect answer that describes a normal physiological change that occurs during pregnancy, not a cause of supine hypotensive syndrome. A 50% increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy is due to increased production of plasma and red blood cells, which helps meet the increased oxygen and nutrient demands of the fetus and placenta, and prepares the mother for blood loss during delivery. A 50% increase in maternal blood volume during pregnancy does not cause hypotension or dizziness in pregnant women.
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