An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a client with flu-like symptoms who has been placed on droplet precautions. The UAP requests a change in assignment, stating she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client.

Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to obtain vital signs, and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care.

Instruct the DAP that a standard face mask is sufficient to be able to provide care for the assigned client.

Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) This option is unnecessary because droplet precautions do not require a particulate filter mask. Particulate filter masks are needed for airborne precautions. Sending the UAP for fitting delays care without providing additional safety benefits for droplet precautions.

B) While a standard face mask is appropriate for droplet precautions, the part about getting fitted for a filter mask is unnecessary. It implies that a particulate filter mask is needed, which it is not for droplet precautions. This option also incorrectly suggests that vital signs can be obtained with a standard mask, but personal care requires a particulate filter mask, which is not accurate.

C) Droplet precautions require the use of a standard face mask, not a particulate filter mask (such as an N95 respirator). Particulate filter masks are required for airborne precautions, which are necessary for diseases like tuberculosis, measles, or chickenpox. For droplet precautions, a standard surgical mask is adequate to prevent the transmission of infections like influenza. Thus, the UAP can safely provide care to the client with flu-like symptoms by wearing a standard face mask.

D) This option is unnecessary because a particulate filter mask is not required for droplet precautions. Changing assignments based on this criterion is not needed and could disrupt the workflow without enhancing safety. The focus should be on ensuring staff understand and use the appropriate PPE for droplet precautions.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Correct- Zidovudine is an antiretroviral medication used in the treatment of HIV infection.

One of the potential side effects of zidovudine is hematological toxicity, including anemia (low red blood cell count) and neutropenia (low white blood cell count). The appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin could be indicative of petechiae, which are small hemorrhages caused by the leakage of blood into the skin. Petechiae can occur due to low platelet counts, a
component of the complete blood count (CBC). Monitoring the complete blood count is important for clients receiving zidovudine to identify any potential adverse effects on blood cell counts. Anemia and neutropenia can increase the risk of infection, bleeding, and other complications. Therefore, any changes in blood cell counts, including the presence of petechiae, should be reported to the healthcare provider for further evaluation and management.
B) Incorrect- This is used to assess allergic reactions and is not specifically related to the appearance of petechiae.
C) Incorrect- A skin biopsy is typically performed to diagnose skin conditions or diseases and is not the primary assessment to evaluate the cause of petechiae.
D) Incorrect- Electromyography is a diagnostic test used to assess muscle and nerve function and is not relevant to the appearance of petechiae associated with zidovudine use.

A. A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort. B. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia. C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities. D. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. A 12-year-old reporting neck, arm, and lower back discomfort:

This child is reporting discomfort, which is concerning, but it doesn't indicate an immediate life-threatening condition. However, a thorough assessment is needed to rule out any serious injuries, especially to the spine.

B. An 8-year-old with a full leg air splint for a possible broken tibia:

While a possible broken tibia requires attention, it is not as immediately critical as symptoms such as projectile vomiting. Splinting can help stabilize the limb, but it is not an emergency that requires immediate attention compared to potential neurological issues.

C. A 6-year-old with multiple superficial lacerations of all extremities:

Superficial lacerations, although they require care, are generally not immediately life-threatening. The child needs appropriate wound care and assessment for any deeper injuries, but this can be addressed in a timely manner without immediate urgency.

D. An 11-year-old with a headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting:

This is the most concerning presentation among the options. Headache, nausea, and projectile vomiting could be indicative of a severe head injury, and these neurological symptoms require urgent evaluation to assess for conditions such as a concussion, intracranial bleed, or increased intracranial pressure.

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An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is assigned to a client with flu-like symptoms who has been placed on droplet precautions. The UAP requests a change in assignment, stating she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client who is receiving zidovudine reports the appearance of pinpoint, red, round spots on the skin. Which result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

The nurse is triaging several children as they present to the emergency room after a school bus accident. Which child requires the most immediate intervention by the nurse?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?

A client with a chlamydia infection receives a prescription for a single dose azithromycin 1 gram by mouth. The bottle is labeled "Azithromycin for Oral Suspension, USP 200 mg per 5 mL." How many mL should the nurse administer? (Enter numerical value only.)

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The nurse discovers that an older client with no history of cardiac or renal disease has an elevated serum magnesium level. To further investigate the cause of this electrolyte imbalance, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the client's medical history?

The nurse is performing tracheostomy care for a client when a code blue is called for another client on the unit who experiences a cardiopulmonary arrest. Which action should the nurse take?

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