An older patient is admitted for bacterial pneumonia. The only abnormal assessment values include a heart rate of 102 beats per minute, slight cyanosis of the nail beds, and mild confusion. The patients daughter questions the possibility of pneumonia stating, He isn’t coughing or having any difficulty breathing. The nurse responds most appropriately by saying.

"Older adults frequently lack the typical signs of a respiratory infection."

"Respiratory problems develop only after the infection is well established."

"People your dad's age often lack the muscular strength to cough."

"We are lucky to determine the problem in its early stage."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Older adults often present with atypical symptoms when they have respiratory infections, such as pneumonia. They may not always exhibit classic signs like a cough or significant difficulty breathing. Instead, symptoms might include confusion, changes in mental status, or subtle signs of respiratory distress. This explanation addresses the patient's daughter's concern by acknowledging that older adults can show different manifestations of illness compared to younger people.
B.A This response is misleading. Respiratory problems can develop at any stage of an infection, not only after the infection is well established. Pneumonia can sometimes present without obvious respiratory distress or symptoms, especially in older adults. It’s crucial to recognize that pneumonia can manifest in various ways and early intervention is important.
C. While it's true that older adults may experience decreased muscular strength, this response might be too specific and not fully address the broader issue. It's also possible that the patient has enough strength but is not showing the typical signs of infection. This response might oversimplify the situation and could be seen as dismissive of the patient's actual symptoms.
D. This response, while optimistic, is not entirely appropriate in this context. It might come off as minimizing the daughter's concerns and does not directly address why the patient might not exhibit typical symptoms of pneumonia. It’s important to acknowledge the atypical presentation rather than simply focusing on the timing of the diagnosis.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Reflex tone refers to the neurological response of the body to stimuli and is not directly related to the action or monitoring of anticoagulant therapy. While assessing reflexes might be important for overall patient health, it is not specifically relevant to monitoring the effects of warfarin. Reflex tone does not provide information on the anticoagulation status or risk of bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.
B. Checking the body for bruising helps assess the safety of warfarin therapy and may indicate the need for dosage adjustments or further investigation if bruising is excessive. However, while monitoring for bruising is essential, it is not the primary method for assessing the effectiveness and safety of anticoagulant therapy.
C. While monitoring kidney function is relevant for overall medication management, it is not the primary focus for directly assessing the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy. Kidney function is more related to adjusting doses and avoiding potential complications.
D. Regularly reviewing PT is crucial for managing warfarin therapy because it directly reflects the anticoagulation effect of the medication. The International Normalized Ratio (INR), derived from PT, is used to ensure the patient is within the therapeutic range for effective anticoagulation while minimizing the risk of bleeding.

A. Serum complement level B. Glomerular filtration rate C. White blood count D. Electroencephalogram

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Serum complement levels are used to evaluate the complement system, which is part of the immune system and plays a role in inflammation and infection. While complement levels can be important in certain inflammatory and autoimmune conditions, they are not typically used to assess age-related changes that impact drug metabolism or the appropriate selection of pain medications.
B. The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is a key measure of kidney function. In older adults, kidney function often declines with age, affecting the metabolism and excretion of medications. Many drugs are primarily eliminated through the kidneys, and impaired kidney function can lead to drug accumulation, increased risk of toxicity, and altered therapeutic efficacy. Assessing GFR helps in adjusting medication doses to avoid adverse effects and ensure safe and effective treatment.
C. A White Blood Count (WBC) measures the number of white blood cells in the blood and is used to assess the body's response to infection, inflammation, and other conditions. While it provides valuable information about immune function and potential infections, it does not directly address age-related changes in drug metabolism or pharmacokinetics. Therefore, it is not the primary test for evaluating how aging might affect drug therapy.
D. An Electroencephalogram (EEG) records the electrical activity of the brain and is used to diagnose neurological conditions such as seizures, sleep disorders, and brain abnormalities. Although EEGs are valuable in certain neurological assessments, they do not provide information on how age-related physiological changes affect drug metabolism or how to tailor drug regimens for older adults.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An older adult patient has been prescribed warfarin (coumadin). The nurses primary intervention involves daily review of the patient's:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

The nurse is caring for an older adult who reports severe chronic pain. To best assess age- related physiologic changes that could influence plans for initiating an appropriate drug regimen, the nurse prepares the patient for which laboratory evaluation?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse in an assisted living facility is practicing a form of cultural bias called ethnocentrism when:

A nurse working in the emergency department is seeing an older patient who does not speak English well. The nurse calls for an interpreter. The student wants to know why the patient's minor child, who speaks English, cannot interpret. What response by the nurse is best? (Select all that apply.)

A nurse planning primary disease prevention interventions for a 64-year-old patient includes which of the following? Select all that apply.

To best assure both the quality of care and the safety of the older adult patient who requires in home unlicensed assistive personal (UAP) assistance, the geriatric nurse:

A patient with congestive heart failure is scheduled to receive 0.125 mg of digoxin. The nurse has on hand 0.25 mg/tablet. How many tablet(s) should the nurse prepare to administer?

The nurse planning care for an older adult who has recently been diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis views the priority criterion for continued Independence to be the patients:

The nurse wishes to participate in a community secondary prevention activity. Which activity does the nurse choose?

While caring for an older Korean patient, the nurse notes that the patient answers questions regarding health history when asked but is otherwise silent and does not maintain eye contact. Being culturally sensitive, the nurse recognizes that the patients actions are most likely a(n):