An older adult female asks the practical nurse (PN) if she should get a Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccination because she gets cold sores on her mouth when she is sick or stressed. Which response should the PN provide?
The vaccine is not useful if you have ever had a case of shingles.
If you are 60 or older, the one-time vaccination is recommended.
You do not need to get this vaccination if you have had chicken pox.
The vaccination minimizes outbreaks of cold sores.
The Correct Answer is B
The Herpes zoster (shingles) vaccination is recommended for adults aged 60 years and older, regardless of whether they have had shingles or chicken pox before. The vaccine can reduce the risk of developing shingles and its complications, such as postherpetic neuralgia.
The other options are not correct because:
A. The vaccine is useful even if the person has had a case of shingles before, as shingles can recur in some people. The vaccine can prevent or reduce the severity of future episodes.
C. The person needs to get this vaccination even if they have had chickenpox, as shingles are caused by the reactivation of the same virus that causes chickenpox (varicella-zoster virus). The vaccine can boost the immunity against the virus and prevent it from reactivating.
D. The vaccination does not minimize outbreaks of cold sores, as cold sores are caused by a different virus (herpes simplex virus). The vaccine has no effect on this virus or its symptoms.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Check fundal consistency and continue to monitor the lochial flow amount.
Choice A rationale:
Inserting an indwelling catheter to empty the bladder and contract the fundus is not the appropriate action for a sudden gush of vaginal blood and blood clots. The priority here is to assess the fundus, not intervene with an indwelling catheter. Catheterization may be necessary for other reasons, but not in this context.
Choice B rationale:
Returning the client to bed and maintaining bedrest until the lochial flow slows may be a reasonable initial response, but it is not the most appropriate action. The sudden gush of blood and presence of blood clots could be indicative of postpartum hemorrhage or retained placental tissue, which require prompt evaluation.
Choice C rationale:
Checking fundal consistency and continuing to monitor the lochial flow amount is the most appropriate action. The sudden gush of blood and clots suggest a possible uterine atony or retained products of conception. Assessing the fundal height and firmness helps identify if the uterus is contracting adequately, while monitoring the lochial flow amount can indicate ongoing bleeding.
Choice D rationale:
Massaging the fundus and avoiding direct pressure on the cesarean incision is not the recommended action in this situation. Massaging the fundus without assessing its consistency could worsen bleeding if there is uterine atony, and the client needs immediate evaluation and monitoring.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is the best intervention for the PN to implement because it relieves the muscle spasm and reduces the pain of a leg cramp. Leg cramps are common during pregnancy and labor due to changes in calcium levels, fluid balance, or pressure on nerves and blood vessels.
A. Massaging the calf and foot is not recommended because it may increase pain or cause injury to the muscle or nerve.
C. Checking the pedal pulse in the affected leg is not necessary unless there is a suspicion of vascular compromise or thrombosis, which are unlikely causes of a leg cramp.
D. Elevating the leg above the heart is not helpful because it may impair blood flow or increase pressure on the nerve or muscle.
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