An older adult diagnosed with moderate dementia is seen in the geriatric clinic. As the nurse is evaluating the client, the client's wife states that her husband has developed an increasing number of episodes of incontinence. She does not know what is precipitating the episodes, and states "maybe he just doesn't remember that he needs to urinate or maybe it's me, it takes me a while to walk him to the bathroom." The nurse develops a plan of care for this client and includes which of the following interventions to manage the incontinence? (Select all that apply.)
Use of a commode close by to where the client spends most of his time
Development of a toileting schedule
Use of an external catheter
Bladder diary to be completed by the client's wife
Correct Answer : A,B
Choice A reason: Use of a commode close by to where the client spends most of his time can reduce the distance and time required for the client to reach the toilet, and thus prevent accidents and embarrassment. It can also promote the client's independence and dignity.
Choice B reason: Development of a toileting schedule can help the client to establish a routine and habit of voiding at regular intervals, and thus prevent the bladder from becoming too full or overactive. It can also reduce the risk of urinary tract infections and skin breakdown.
Choice C reason: Use of an external catheter is not recommended for older adults with dementia, as it can cause irritation, infection, and obstruction of the urinary tract. It can also increase the client's confusion and agitation, and interfere with his mobility and comfort.
Choice D reason: Bladder diary to be completed by the client's wife is not a direct intervention to manage the incontinence, but rather a tool to assess the pattern and severity of the problem. It can help the nurse to identify the possible causes and triggers of the incontinence, and to evaluate the effectiveness of the interventions. However, it may not be feasible or reliable for the client's wife to complete the diary, as she may have other responsibilities or difficulties in observing and recording the client's urinary habits.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Older adult declines company, is preoccupied with lethal weapons is the highest risk factor for suicide, as it indicates social isolation, hopelessness, and suicidal intent. The older adult may be suffering from depression, anxiety, or other mental health issues that impair their quality of life and increase their likelihood of harming themselves.
Choice B reason: Liver failure is due to alcohol abuse, older adult is popular at meals is not the highest risk factor for suicide, as it does not indicate suicidal ideation or behavior. The older adult may have a chronic medical condition that affects their liver function, but they may also have a supportive social network and coping skills that reduce their risk of suicide.
Choice C reason: Refuses to allow a large, extended family to help him is not the highest risk factor for suicide, as it does not indicate suicidal ideation or behavior. The older adult may have a preference for independence and autonomy, or they may have a strained relationship with their family. However, they may also have other sources of support and meaning in their life that lower their risk of suicide.
Choice D reason: The older adult had an overdose of acetaminophen 20 years ago; is in a sewing group is not the highest risk factor for suicide, as it does not indicate current suicidal ideation or behavior. The older adult may have a history of a suicide attempt, but they may also have recovered from their past crisis and found a positive outlet for their emotions and interests in the sewing group.
Choice E reason: None of the above is not the correct answer, as there is one choice that indicates the highest risk for suicide.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Organize the reperfusion recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (tPA) infusion is not the appropriate step, as it is a treatment for acute ischemic stroke, which has not been confirmed in this client. tPA is a clot-busting drug that can restore blood flow to the brain, but it has strict criteria and time window for its use. The nurse should not assume that the client has a stroke without further assessment and diagnosis.
Choice B reason: Determine symptom onset or when the fall occurred is not the appropriate step, as it is not the priority for this client. The nurse should first assess the client's vital signs, neurologic status, and potential injuries from the fall. The symptom onset or fall time may be relevant for the diagnosis and treatment of the underlying cause, but it is not the most urgent information to obtain.
Choice C reason: Arrange for a transfer immediately to the radiology department is not the appropriate step, as it is not the most immediate intervention for this client. The nurse should first stabilize the client's condition, perform a thorough assessment, and obtain orders from the medical provider. The radiology department may be needed for diagnostic tests, such as computed tomography (CT) scan or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), but it is not the first destination for this client.
Choice D reason: Perform a comprehensive neurologic assessment is the appropriate step, as it can help identify the possible cause of the client's balance problem and rule out a stroke or other serious condition. A neurologic assessment includes checking the client's level of consciousness, orientation, speech, cranial nerve function, motor strength, sensory perception, coordination, and reflexes. The nurse should also monitor the client's vital signs, oxygen saturation, and blood glucose levels.

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