An antepartum nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate seizure precautions?
A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension
A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole
A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture
The Correct Answer is A
- A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a lifethreatening complication that involves seizures.
- B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
- C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
- D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
- A. This choice is incorrect because verapamil and TPN do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker that can lower blood pressure and heart rate, while TPN is a form of intravenous nutrition that provides calories, electrolytes, vitamins, and minerals. The nurse should monitor the client's vital signs and blood glucose levels, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- B. This choice is incorrect because phenytoin and milkshakes do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Phenytoin is an anticonvulsant that can decrease the absorption of some vitamins, such as folic acid and vitamin D, but milkshakes are not a major source of these nutrients. The nurse should encourage the client to eat a balanced diet and take supplements as prescribed, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- C. This choice is incorrect because potassium-rich foods and furosemide do not have a significant food and medication interaction. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia, or low potassium levels, but potassium-rich foods can help prevent this complication. The nurse should monitor the client's electrolyte levels and fluid balance, but there is no need to intervene to prevent an interaction.
- D. This choice is correct because MAOIs and cheeseburgers have a significant food and medication interaction. MAOIs are antidepressants that can cause hypertensive crisis, or dangerously high blood pressure, if the client consumes foods that contain tyramine, such as aged cheeses, cured meats, fermented foods, and beer. The nurse should intervene to prevent the client from eating a cheeseburger and educate the client about avoiding tyramine-containing foods while taking MAOIs.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. Incorrect. A 1-inch needle may not be long enough to reach the muscle layer in an obese client, which may result in subcutaneous injection and reduced absorption of the medication.
- B. Incorrect. A 45° angle may not be appropriate for an IM injection, as it may cause the needle to enter at an oblique angle and miss the muscle layer or hit a bone or nerve.
- C. Correct. The ventrogluteal site is preferred for IM injections in obese clients, as it has less subcutaneous fat and a large muscle mass that can accommodate larger volumes of medication.
- D. Incorrect. Pinching the skin up during injection may cause the needle to enter at a shallow angle and deposit the medication in the subcutaneous tissue instead of the muscle layer.
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