An antepartum nurse is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse initiate seizure precautions?
A client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension
A client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole
A client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding
A client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture
The Correct Answer is A
- A. Correct. The nurse should initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has severe gestational hypertension, which is a blood pressure of 160/110 mm Hg or higher on two occasions at least 4 hr apart, or once with signs of end-organ damage. Severe gestational hypertension can lead to preeclampsia, which is a condition characterized by hypertension, proteinuria, and edema, and can progress to eclampsia, which is a lifethreatening complication that involves seizures.
- B. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 16 weeks of gestation and has a hydatidiform mole, which is an abnormal growth of placental tissue that resembles grape-like clusters. A hydatidiform mole can cause vaginal bleeding, hyperemesis gravidarum, and elevated human chorionic gonadotropin levels, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
- C. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 28 weeks of gestation and is experiencing vaginal bleeding, which can have various causes such as placenta previa, placental abruption, or cervical trauma. Vaginal bleeding can indicate a potential hemorrhage, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
- D. Incorrect. The nurse does not need to initiate seizure precautions for a client who is at 36 weeks of gestation and has a positive group B streptococcal culture, which means that the client has bacteria in their vagina or rectum that can cause infection in the newborn during delivery. A positive group B streptococcal culture requires antibiotic prophylaxis during labor, but it does not increase the risk of seizures.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tightening the tubing connections may be necessary if there is a leak in the ventilator system, but it does not address the high-pressure alarm issue. The nurse needs to address the immediate alarm situation first.
Choice B rationale:
Requesting insertion of a tracheostomy tube is not the appropriate action for a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. Tracheostomy tube insertion is a significant procedure that is not indicated solely based on a high-pressure alarm.
Choice C rationale:
Suctioning the client's airway is the correct action for a high-pressure alarm on the ventilator. The alarm indicates an obstruction in the airway, and suctioning can help clear any secretions or blockages, allowing the client to breathe more effectively.
Choice D rationale:
Looking for a leak in the tube's cuff may be necessary if the high-pressure alarm persists after suctioning and checking connections. Identifying and repairing any leaks can prevent further issues with ventilation. However, immediate action should be taken to clear the airway first, as indicated by suctioning.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
- A is correct because aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time) measures the effectiveness of heparin therapy and guides dosage adjustments.
- B is incorrect because PT (prothrombin time) measures the effectiveness of warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- C is incorrect because INR (international normalized ratio) is a standardized version of PT that also monitors warfarin therapy, not heparin.
- D is incorrect because WBC count (white blood cell count) measures the body's immune response and has no relation to heparin therapy.
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