An 11-year-old, who is diagnosed with oppositional defiant disorder, becomes angry and disruptive over the rules of the day treatment program. The nurse should de-escalate the situation by:
calling staff to place the child in the locked seclusion room.
placing the child in physical restraints.
providing a prn anxiolytic medication.
suggesting that the child go into the gym and shoot some baskets.
The Correct Answer is D
D. It offers the child a constructive way to release pent-up energy and frustration in a safe and non- confrontational manner. Physical activity can be a helpful tool in managing anger and disruptive behavior, as it allows the child to channel their emotions into a productive activity.
A. This option is not appropriate because it involves isolating the child in a locked room, which could further escalate the situation and may traumatize the child. Seclusion should only be used as a last resort in situations where the child or others are at risk of harm.
B. Physical restraints should only be used as a last resort in situations where the child poses an immediate danger to themselves or others. Using physical restraints can escalate the situation and may cause physical and psychological harm to the child.
C. Medication may be prescribed to manage symptoms of oppositional defiant disorder. However, using a PRN (as needed) anxiolytic medication to manage acute agitation should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
B. Methylphenidate is a central nervous system stimulant commonly used in the treatment of ADHD. It works by increasing the levels of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, which helps improve attention, focus, and impulse control in individuals with ADHD. Teaching the family about methylphenidate would be appropriate as it is one of the most commonly prescribed medications for ADHD.
A. Fluphenazine is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It is not typically used as a first-line treatment for ADHD
C. Diazepam is a benzodiazepine medication primarily used to treat anxiety disorders, muscle spasms, and seizures. It is not indicated for the treatment of ADHD.
D. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat psychotic disorders and severe behavioral disturbances. It is not a first-line treatment for ADHD.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. This approach involves establishing clear and consistent rules and boundaries, which are crucial for managing antisocial behaviors. It helps to create a structured environment where the consequences of actions are predictable and reinforces the understanding of acceptable behaviors.
A. Encouraging the client to explore and address underlying emotions, including feelings of fear and inferiority, can be an important aspect of therapy and may help mitigate manipulative behaviors over time.
B. Antisocial personality disorder is associated with behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. Positive reinforcement for these behaviors would not address the underlying issues and may inadvertently reinforce harmful patterns of behavior.
D. Ignoring inappropriate behavior may reinforce the notion that manipulation is an effective means of achieving desired outcomes and may lead to further boundary violations.
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