After suctioning a client who has an endotracheal tube, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the intervention was effective?

Clear breath sounds on auscultation.

Increased respiratory rate.

Decreased oxygen saturation.

Presence of wheezing.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Clear breath sounds indicate effective suctioning, as it removes secretions obstructing the airway, improving ventilation. This aligns with the goal of endotracheal suctioning to maintain airway patency, ensuring adequate oxygenation and reducing infection risk, per critical care and respiratory management protocols in nursing practice.

Choice B reason: Increased respiratory rate suggests respiratory distress, indicating ineffective suctioning. Clear breath sounds confirm secretion removal, ensuring airway patency. A rising rate may reflect persistent obstruction or hypoxia, requiring further intervention, per respiratory assessment and critical care standards for endotracheal tube management in nursing.

Choice C reason: Decreased oxygen saturation indicates ineffective suctioning, as secretions likely remain, impairing oxygenation. Clear breath sounds confirm airway clearance, improving gas exchange. Low saturation requires immediate reassessment, per oxygenation monitoring and critical care protocols for clients with endotracheal tubes in nursing practice.

Choice D reason: Presence of wheezing suggests airway narrowing or persistent secretions, indicating ineffective suctioning. Clear breath sounds demonstrate successful secretion removal, ensuring unobstructed airflow. Wheezing requires further intervention, per respiratory assessment and airway management standards in critical care nursing for intubated clients.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Persistent pain after Herpes zoster suggests postherpetic neuralgia (PHN), a neuropathic condition from varicella-zoster virus damaging sensory nerves. Assessing pain intensity, location, and characteristics guides treatment with analgesics or anticonvulsants like gabapentin. This step differentiates PHN from other causes, ensuring targeted therapy to alleviate nerve pain and improve quality of life.

Choice B reason: Checking shingles vaccination status is irrelevant for current pain, as the client already had Herpes zoster. Vaccination prevents initial infection but does not treat PHN, which results from nerve damage during active infection. Pain assessment is critical to address neuropathic symptoms caused by viral-induced sensory nerve dysfunction, making this less urgent.

Choice C reason: A mental status exam evaluates cognition but is not indicated for PHN, a physiological condition from nerve damage, not a cognitive issue. Pain is neuropathic, driven by damaged sensory neurons, not psychological factors. Assessing pain directly addresses the client’s complaint, guiding treatment for nerve-related discomfort, making this action inappropriate.

Choice D reason: Teaching about phantom pain is incorrect, as phantom pain occurs post-amputation, not after shingles. PHN involves persistent nerve pain in the affected dermatome due to viral nerve damage. Misdiagnosing this could delay proper management, as pain assessment is needed to confirm PHN and initiate therapies like gabapentin, not phantom pain education.

A. A client with pancreatitis who has a fasting glucose of 190 mg/dL (10.55 mmol/L) today and had 160 mg/dL (8.88 mmol/L) yesterday. B. A client with a gastrointestinal (GI) bleed who is receiving a blood transfusion and has a hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL (4.34 mmol/L). C. A client with cancer who has an absolute neutrophil count (ANC) of less than 500/mm3 today and had 2,000/mm3 yesterday. D. A client with hepatitis who is jaundiced and has a bilirubin level that is 4 times the normal value.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Elevated glucose (190 mg/dL) in pancreatitis needs monitoring but is less urgent than severe neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks life-threatening infections. Glucose can be managed with insulin, per diabetes and pancreatitis care protocols, but neutropenia requires immediate intervention.

Choice B reason: Hemoglobin of 7.0 g/dL in a GI bleed is critical but less immediate, as the client is receiving a transfusion. Neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3) poses an urgent infection risk, requiring isolation. Transfusion addresses anemia, per bleeding and hematology care standards.

Choice C reason: An ANC <500/mm3 indicates severe neutropenia, posing an immediate infection risk in cancer patients, requiring urgent isolation and antibiotics. This rapid drop from 2,000/mm3 demands priority intervention to prevent sepsis, per oncology and infection control protocols in nursing practice.

Choice D reason: Elevated bilirubin in hepatitis is concerning but less urgent than neutropenia (ANC <500/mm3), which risks sepsis. Jaundice requires monitoring and treatment, but severe infection risk takes precedence, per liver disease and critical care prioritization standards in nursing practice.

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After suctioning a client who has an endotracheal tube, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the intervention was effective?

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Five months following treatment for Herpes zoster (shingles), an older adult client tells the home health nurse of continuing to experience pain where the rash occurred. Which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Which client’s laboratory value requires immediate intervention by a nurse? Reference Range: Hemoglobin (Hgb) [14 to 18 g/dL (8.7 to 11.2 mmol/L)]; Fasting Blood Glucose [70 to 110 mg/dL (3.9 to 6.1 mmol/L)]; Neutrophils (ANC) [55 to 70%: 2,500 to 8,000/mm3 (2.5 to 5.8 x109/L)]

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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After suctioning a client who has an endotracheal tube, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the intervention was effective?