After assessing a client with deficits from a spinal cord injury, the nurse identifies the client's 02 saturation is 92%. Which of the following is the best first action by the nurse?
A Anticipate intubation
B Ask client to cough, then inhale and exhale deeply
C Insert an intravenous catheter
D Administer antihypertensives
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A Rationale: Anticipating intubation is not warranted solely based on an O2 saturation of 92% and without further assessment.
Choice B Rationale: Asking the client to cough, then inhale and exhale deeply is an appropriate initial action to improve oxygenation and assess the client's respiratory status.
Choice C Rationale: Inserting an intravenous catheter is unrelated to the client's O2 saturation and would not address the immediate concern.
Choice D Rationale: Administering antihypertensives is not indicated based on the O2 saturation level, and it may not be safe without further assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Rationale: Assessing the client for bladder distention is the first and most crucial step in managing autonomic dysreflexia. Bladder distention is a common trigger for this condition in clients with spinal cord injuries. Identifying and addressing the cause (bladder distention) is the priority to prevent further complications.
Choice B Rationale: Laying the client flat may not resolve the underlying cause of autonomic dysreflexia and should be done after identifying and addressing the trigger.
Choice C Rationale: Obtaining the client's heart rate is important but should come after assessing for bladder distention since the primary concern in autonomic dysreflexia is elevated blood pressure due to a noxious stimulus.
Choice D Rationale: Administering a nitrate antihypertensive may be necessary if other interventions do not resolve the blood pressure elevation, but it should not be the first action. Identifying and addressing the cause, such as bladder distention, is the priority.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Rationale: Linking the pain to nasal stuffiness is not an accurate explanation of trigeminal neuralgia.
Choice B Rationale: Hypoglycemia is not typically related to trigeminal neuralgia.
Choice C Rationale: Releasing catecholamines with infection or stress is not the primary cause of trigeminal neuralgia.
Choice D Rationale: Pain is often due to stimulation of the affected nerve by pressure and temperature. This is a more accurate and relevant explanation for trigeminal neuralgia.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today