A woman with severe preeclampsia is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. The nurse becomes concerned after assessment when the woman exhibits:
a sleepy, sedated affect.
absent ankle clonus.
a respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min.
deep tendon reflexes of 2+.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A reason: A sleepy, sedated affect is not a concerning sign, as it is a common side effect of magnesium sulfate. Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant that can cause drowsiness, lethargy, and reduced alertness.
Choice B reason: Absent ankle clonus is not a concerning sign, as it indicates a normal neuromuscular response. Ankle clonus is a rhythmic jerking of the foot when the ankle is dorsiflexed. It is a sign of hyperreflexia, which can occur in severe preeclampsia due to increased blood pressure and cerebral edema.
Choice C reason: A respiratory rate of 10 breaths/min is a concerning sign, as it indicates respiratory depression. This is a serious complication of magnesium sulfate toxicity, which can lead to respiratory arrest and death. The nurse should monitor the woman's respiratory rate closely and report any signs of respiratory distress.
Choice D reason: Deep tendon reflexes of 2+ are not a concerning sign, as they indicate a normal neuromuscular response. Deep tendon reflexes are graded from 0 to 4, with 2 being the average. Magnesium sulfate can cause hyporeflexia or areflexia, which are signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Penicillin is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Penicillin is an antibiotic that works by inhibiting the cell wall synthesis of bacteria. However, chlamydia is an intracellular bacterium that does not have a cell wall and is resistant to penicillin.
Choice B reason: Acyclovir is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Acyclovir is an antiviral drug that works by inhibiting the DNA synthesis of viruses. However, chlamydia is a bacterium, not a virus, and is not affected by acyclovir².
Choice C reason: Doxycycline is the correct option, as it is one of the recommended medications for the treatment of chlamydia. Doxycycline is a tetracycline antibiotic that works by inhibiting the protein synthesis of bacteria. It can penetrate the cells and kill chlamydia by interfering with its growth and reproduction. The CDC recommends a 7-day course of doxycycline (100 mg orally twice a day) for the treatment of uncomplicated chlamydia infection.
Choice D reason: Podofilox is not a correct option, as it is not effective against chlamydia. Podofilox is a topical medication that works by destroying the tissue of genital warts caused by human papillomavirus (HPV). However, chlamydia is a different infection that does not cause genital warts and is not treated by podofilox.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A: February 6-7 is incorrect. This is too late for the woman's fertile period, which occurs around the time of ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle¹.
Choice B:In a 28-day menstrual cycle, ovulation typically occurs around day 14 (counting from the first day of the last menstrual period). Since the first day of the last period is January 8, day 14 falls on January 22. The fertile window consists of the five days leading up to ovulation and the day of ovulation (January 17–22), as sperm can survive in the reproductive tract for up to 5 days, and the egg remains viable for about 24 hours after ovulation.January 22-23 is the most fertile period, with ovulation occurring around January 22 and the egg remaining viable for fertilization on January 23.
Choice C: January 30-31 is incorrect. This is after the woman's fertile period, which ends about a day after ovulation. Ovulation usually happens about 14 days before the next period starts, which would be around January 22 for a 28-day cycle.
Choice D: January 14-15 corresponds to cycle days 7-8, which is too early for ovulation in a typical 28-day cycle. Ovulation generally occurs around day 14 (January 22). The follicular phase (the first half of the cycle) is when the follicles in the ovary mature, and estrogen levels rise to trigger ovulation. At this point (January 14-15), the egg is not yet released, and the uterus is still preparing for ovulation, making conception unlikely.
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