A student nurse is helping with the care of a client receiving an IV heparin infusion.
Which medication should be readily available in case of a heparin overdose?
Protamine sulfate.
Vitamin K.
Glucagon.
Ferrous sulfate.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale
Protamine sulfate is the specific antidote for heparin overdose. It is a highly basic (alkaline) protein that forms a stable, inactive complex with the highly acidic heparin molecule, thereby neutralizing its anticoagulant effect, primarily its inhibition of Factor Xa and thrombin. The rapid action of protamine sulfate makes it crucial for reversing life-threatening bleeding associated with excessive heparin administration.
Choice B rationale
Vitamin K (phytonadione) is the antidote for warfarin overdose because it promotes the synthesis of active Vitamin K-dependent clotting factors (II, VII, IX, X) in the liver, reversing warfarin's inhibitory action. It is ineffective against heparin, which acts on existing clotting factors and antithrombin.
Choice C rationale
Glucagon is a pancreatic hormone used to treat severe hypoglycemia by stimulating hepatic glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, increasing blood glucose levels. It has no chemical or pharmacological effect on reversing the anticoagulant properties of heparin.
Choice D rationale
Ferrous sulfate is an oral iron supplement used to treat iron deficiency anemia by providing elemental iron necessary for hemoglobin synthesis in red blood cells. It does not interact with or neutralize heparin's anti-clotting mechanism.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Vitamin D is crucial for calcium absorption in the gut, which is essential for bone mineralization and strength. Osteoporosis is characterized by decreased bone mass, so a decrease in Vitamin D intake would exacerbate the condition by impairing calcium homeostasis and potentially leading to hypocalcemia and increased bone resorption.
Choice B rationale
Weight-bearing exercises, such as walking, stimulate osteoblast activity, promoting bone formation and increasing bone mineral density. A consistent regimen, such as walking five times a week, applies mechanical stress to the bone, which is a known physiological stimulus for bone remodeling and is effective in slowing bone loss associated with osteoporosis.
Choice C rationale
Corticosteroids (e.g., prednisone) are well-known to be a risk factor for osteoporosis. They increase bone resorption, decrease bone formation, and impair calcium absorption, leading to accelerated bone loss. Their use would be contraindicated for managing osteoporosis symptoms, as it worsens the underlying pathology.
Choice D rationale
Applying cool clothes or ice is primarily effective for acute inflammation or muscle strains. While potentially helpful for temporary joint pain, it does not address the underlying systemic pathology of osteoporosis, which is a reduction in bone density and structural integrity, not a primary inflammatory joint process. Management focuses on slowing bone loss and preventing fractures.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
The recommended first-line treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea is typically a single 500 mg intramuscular (IM) injection of Ceftriaxone, a third-generation cephalosporin. This regimen is highly effective because Ceftriaxone achieves high, sustained serum and tissue levels and addresses the increasing rates of antimicrobial resistance seen in Neisseria gonorrhoeae, providing a reliable, single-dose cure to both the client and their partner.
Choice B rationale
Doxycycline is primarily used to treat Chlamydia trachomatis infection, which frequently co-occurs with gonorrhea. While it may be administered alongside Ceftriaxone for dual coverage if chlamydia hasn't been ruled out, it is not the monotherapy for gonorrhea, which requires the higher efficacy of a cephalosporin like Ceftriaxone due to resistance patterns.
Choice C rationale
Penicillin is no longer the standard treatment for gonorrhea because Neisseria gonorrhoeae has developed widespread resistance to penicillins and many other older antibiotics through plasmid-mediated β-lactamase production and chromosomal mutations. Using a single dose of Penicillin would likely result in treatment failure and the progression of the infection, thus necessitating the use of the more potent Ceftriaxone.
Choice D rationale
Gonorrhea is caused by the bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae and is a serious sexually transmitted infection (STI) that requires prompt antibiotic treatment. It does not typically resolve on its own. Untreated infection can lead to severe complications, including pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) in women, epididymitis in men, and potentially disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI), highlighting the necessity of effective treatment.
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