A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Herpes simplex virus.
Vulvovaginitis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Chronic yeast infections.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus:
While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
B. Vulvovaginitis:
Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.
D. Chronic yeast infections:
Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) An increase in afterload results in decreased systolic pressure, which creates a decreased cardiac output:
This statement is incorrect. According to the Frank-Starling law, afterload refers to the resistance against which the heart must pump blood during systole. An increase in afterload typically results in increased systolic pressure, not decreased, as the heart works harder to overcome the increased resistance. However, increased afterload can lead to decreased cardiac output due to the increased work of the heart.
B) A decrease in afterload causes the cardiac muscles to hypertrophy, resulting in increased diastolic volume:
This statement is incorrect. A decrease in afterload typically reduces the workload on the heart, which may lead to reverse remodeling and a reduction in cardiac hypertrophy. Increased diastolic volume may occur due to reduced afterload, but it's not the direct result of hypertrophy.
C) An increase in preload results in greater shortening of myocardial fibers, thereby increasing contractility:
Correct. The Frank-Starling law states that an increase in preload (end-diastolic volume or stretch of myocardial fibers) leads to greater overlap of actin and myosin filaments within myocardial fibers during systole. This increased overlap results in stronger myocardial contraction (increased contractility), leading to an increased stroke volume and cardiac output.
D) A decrease in preload results in increasing diastolic muscle fiber length, which impedes contractility:
This statement is incorrect. Preload refers to the degree of stretch of the myocardial fibers at the end of diastole. A decrease in preload would lead to decreased stretch of the myocardial fibers, not increasing diastolic muscle fiber length. Decreased preload typically results in decreased contractility rather than an impediment to contractility due to reduced myocardial stretch.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is a genetic disorder characterized by the formation of multiple fluid-filled cysts in the kidneys. One of the complications associated with PKD is hypertension, which often occurs due to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Here's how the pathophysiological process of the RAAS contributes to the client's elevated blood pressure:
A) Intravascular fluid deficit:
In polycystic kidney disease, the development of multiple cysts in the kidneys can impair renal function and lead to decreased filtration and reabsorption capacity. However, this impairment typically leads to fluid retention rather than intravascular fluid deficit, contributing to hypertension rather than hypotension.
B) Renin angiotensin mechanism:
Correct. In PKD, the cysts disrupt normal kidney architecture and function, leading to activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). Reduced renal blood flow and glomerular filtration rate (GFR) stimulate the release of renin from the juxtaglomerular cells of the kidneys. Renin acts on angiotensinogen to convert it into angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor that increases peripheral vascular resistance, leading to elevated blood pressure. Additionally, angiotensin II stimulates the secretion of aldosterone, which promotes sodium and water retention, further contributing to hypertension.
C) Inflammatory process of bladder mucosa:
This option is not directly related to the pathophysiological process of hypertension in polycystic kidney disease. Flank pain and hematuria in PKD are often associated with cyst rupture or hemorrhage within the cysts rather than an inflammatory process of the bladder mucosa.
D) Mineral precipitation in urine:
Mineral precipitation in urine, such as the formation of kidney stones, can occur in polycystic kidney disease but is not directly associated with hypertension. Kidney stones may contribute to flank pain and hematuria but do not typically cause systemic hypertension.
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