A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Herpes simplex virus.
Vulvovaginitis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Chronic yeast infections.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus:
While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
B. Vulvovaginitis:
Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.
D. Chronic yeast infections:
Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Myocardial infarction one year ago:
A myocardial infarction (MI) that occurred one year ago is not directly related to the current acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. While a history of MI may have implications for the client's overall cardiovascular health and management, it is not the most likely cause of the acid-base imbalance indicated by the laboratory results.
B. Occasional use of antacids:
Occasional use of antacids is unlikely to cause the acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. Antacids primarily work by neutralizing gastric acid and are not typically associated with significant alterations in acid-base status, especially when used intermittently.
C. Chronic renal insufficiency:
Chronic renal insufficiency is the most likely cause of the acid-base imbalance indicated by the laboratory results. A low hemoglobin level suggests anemia, which can occur in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production. An elevated creatinine clearance indicates impaired kidney function, as the kidneys are clearing creatinine at a faster rate than normal. Decreased urine specific gravity suggests the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, which is a common finding in renal insufficiency. Renal insufficiency can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys' decreased ability to excrete acid and regulate bicarbonate levels.
D. Shortness of breath with exertion:
Shortness of breath with exertion, a symptom commonly seen in COPD exacerbations, is unlikely to directly cause the acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. While respiratory distress can lead to respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by elevated carbon dioxide levels and decreased pH, the laboratory results indicate metabolic rather than respiratory acidosis.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Hemodialysis is a renal replacement therapy used to remove waste products and excess fluid from the blood when the kidneys are unable to perform this function adequately. The physiological processes involved in hemodialysis include:
A) Solute movement toward a solution with a higher concentration:
While solute movement occurs during hemodialysis, it is typically from a solution with a higher concentration to one with a lower concentration, rather than the opposite. This movement facilitates the removal of waste products and excess solutes from the bloodstream.
B) Water movement toward a solution with a lower solute concentration:
Correct. Osmosis is the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. In hemodialysis, water moves out of the bloodstream, across the semipermeable membrane of the dialyzer, and into the dialysate solution, which has a lower solute concentration. This process helps remove excess fluid from the body.
C) Blood cells and protein movement through the semipermeable membrane:
Blood cells and proteins are too large to pass through the pores of the semipermeable membrane in the dialyzer during hemodialysis. Therefore, the primary exchange occurs between smaller molecules such as urea, creatinine, electrolytes, and water.
D) Osmosis of water movement and diffusion of solute movement:
Correct. Hemodialysis involves both osmosis and diffusion. Osmosis refers to the movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration. Diffusion is the movement of solutes from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration. Together, these processes facilitate the removal of waste products and excess fluid from the bloodstream during hemodialysis.
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