A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Herpes simplex virus.
Vulvovaginitis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Chronic yeast infections.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus:
While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
B. Vulvovaginitis:
Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.
D. Chronic yeast infections:
Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Gout is a type of inflammatory arthritis caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the joints and surrounding tissues. Here's an explanation of the pathophysiological process producing the symptoms of gout:
A) Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation:
Correct. In gout, elevated levels of uric acid in the blood lead to the formation and deposition of monosodium urate crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, particularly in the big toe joint (first metatarsophalangeal joint) in many cases. These crystals trigger an inflammatory response, activating immune cells and causing swelling, redness, warmth, and severe pain in the affected joint. The inflammation and irritation result from the body's immune response to the presence of these crystals.
B) Chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes and joint inflammation:
This option describes a process more characteristic of osteoarthritis, where degeneration of joint cartilage leads to the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs) and joint inflammation. Gout involves the deposition of urate crystals rather than direct chondrocyte injury.
C) An immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue results in inflammation:
This process describes the pathophysiology of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis, where immune complexes and autoantibodies contribute to inflammation and tissue damage. In gout, the inflammation is primarily triggered by the deposition of urate crystals rather than immune complex deposition.
D) An autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen causes joint destruction:
This option describes the autoimmune process seen in diseases like rheumatoid arthritis, where antibodies target specific antigens, leading to joint destruction. Gout is not an autoimmune disease, and joint destruction in gout is primarily due to inflammation caused by urate crystal deposition rather than autoimmune mechanisms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Acute leukemia, including acute myeloid leukemia (AML), involves the proliferation of abnormal myeloblasts (immature white blood cells) in the bone marrow, leading to decreased production of normal blood cells. Here's the breakdown of the pathophysiology contributing to bruising in acute leukemia:
A) Oxyhemoglobin provides less oxygen to tissues:
Oxyhemoglobin refers to hemoglobin bound to oxygen, and its role is in oxygen transport, not in the process of bruising. Therefore, this option is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia.
B) Insufficient platelets delay the clotting process:
Correct. Thrombocytopenia, or low platelet count, is a common complication of acute leukemia due to the replacement of normal bone marrow cells with leukemia cells, leading to inadequate production of platelets. Platelets play a crucial role in hemostasis and clot formation. Insufficient platelets result in delayed clotting, leading to easy bruising and bleeding tendencies in patients with acute leukemia.
C) Phagocytic cells are inadequate in fighting infection:
Leukopenia, or low white blood cell count, can occur in acute leukemia due to suppression of normal hematopoiesis by leukemia cells in the bone marrow. While leukopenia predisposes patients to infections due to impaired immune function, it is not directly related to the pathophysiology of bruising.
D) Lack of iron causes hypochromic blood cells:
Iron deficiency anemia can result in hypochromic red blood cells, but this is not typically associated with the pathophysiology of bruising in acute leukemia. Anemia may contribute to other symptoms such as fatigue and pallor, but bruising primarily results from thrombocytopenia-induced clotting abnormalities.
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