A postmenopausal client presenting to the clinic with describing abdominal pain and an episode of unexplained vaginal Nearing receives a Pap smear (Papanicolaou test). Which medical history information should the nurse expect places the client at most risk for developing cervical cancer,
Herpes simplex virus.
Vulvovaginitis.
Human papillomavirus (HPV).
Chronic yeast infections.
The Correct Answer is C
A. Herpes simplex virus:
While herpes simplex virus (HSV) infection is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause genital ulcers and lesions, it is not directly associated with an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, individuals with genital herpes may have an increased risk of acquiring human papillomavirus (HPV), which is a significant risk factor for cervical cancer.
B. Vulvovaginitis:
Vulvovaginitis refers to inflammation or infection of the vulva and vagina and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. While chronic inflammation or infection may contribute to cellular changes in the cervix, it is not a direct risk factor for cervical cancer.
C. Human papillomavirus (HPV):
Human papillomavirus (HPV) infection is the most significant risk factor for developing cervical cancer. Certain high-risk strains of HPV, particularly HPV types 16 and 18, are strongly associated with the development of cervical dysplasia and cervical cancer. Persistent infection with high-risk HPV strains can lead to cellular changes in the cervix, eventually progressing to cervical cancer.
D. Chronic yeast infections:
Chronic yeast infections, also known as recurrent vulvovaginal candidiasis, are caused by the overgrowth of Candida species in the vaginal area. While chronic yeast infections can cause discomfort and recurrent symptoms, they are not directly linked to an increased risk of cervical cancer. However, chronic irritation or inflammation in the genital area may increase the susceptibility to other infections, including HPV.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
DKA is a serious complication of diabetes mellitus characterized by hyperglycemia, ketosis, and metabolic acidosis. The laboratory results consistent with DKA include:
Elevated blood glucose level: A blood glucose level of 525 mg/dL (28 mmol/L) is significantly elevated and consistent with DKA.
Low arterial blood pH: A decreased arterial blood pH indicates acidosis, which is characteristic of DKA. Normal arterial blood pH ranges from 7.35 to 7.45.
Low bicarbonate (HCO3-) level: A low bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which is also characteristic of DKA. Normal bicarbonate levels range from 21 to 28 mEq/L (21 to 28 mmol/L).
Among the options provided:
A) Arterial blood pH 7.5 and bicarbonate level 32 mEq/L (32 mmol/L):
This pH and bicarbonate level are indicative of alkalosis, which is not consistent with DKA.
B) Arterial blood pH 7.42 and bicarbonate level 18 mEq/L (18 mmol/L):
This pH is within the normal range, and the bicarbonate level is slightly decreased but not indicative of metabolic acidosis consistent with DKA.
C) Arterial blood pH 7.25 and bicarbonate level 10 mEq/L (10 mmol/L):
Correct. This pH is decreased, indicating acidosis, and the bicarbonate level is significantly below the normal range, consistent with metabolic acidosis characteristic of DKA.
D) Arterial blood pH 7.38 and bicarbonate level 29 mEq/L (29 mmol/L):
While the pH is within the normal range, the bicarbonate level is elevated, which is not consistent with metabolic acidosis seen in DKA.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Myocardial infarction one year ago:
A myocardial infarction (MI) that occurred one year ago is not directly related to the current acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. While a history of MI may have implications for the client's overall cardiovascular health and management, it is not the most likely cause of the acid-base imbalance indicated by the laboratory results.
B. Occasional use of antacids:
Occasional use of antacids is unlikely to cause the acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. Antacids primarily work by neutralizing gastric acid and are not typically associated with significant alterations in acid-base status, especially when used intermittently.
C. Chronic renal insufficiency:
Chronic renal insufficiency is the most likely cause of the acid-base imbalance indicated by the laboratory results. A low hemoglobin level suggests anemia, which can occur in chronic kidney disease due to decreased erythropoietin production. An elevated creatinine clearance indicates impaired kidney function, as the kidneys are clearing creatinine at a faster rate than normal. Decreased urine specific gravity suggests the kidneys' inability to concentrate urine properly, which is a common finding in renal insufficiency. Renal insufficiency can lead to metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys' decreased ability to excrete acid and regulate bicarbonate levels.
D. Shortness of breath with exertion:
Shortness of breath with exertion, a symptom commonly seen in COPD exacerbations, is unlikely to directly cause the acid-base imbalance described in the scenario. While respiratory distress can lead to respiratory acidosis, which is characterized by elevated carbon dioxide levels and decreased pH, the laboratory results indicate metabolic rather than respiratory acidosis.
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