A physician orders an isotonic IV solution for a client. Which solution should the nurse plan to administer?

Half-normal saline solution

10% dextrose in water

5% dextrose and half-normal saline solution

Lactated Ringer's solution

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Half-normal saline solution is a hypotonic solution, which means it has a lower concentration of solutes than the blood plasma. It can cause fluid to shift from the blood vessels into the cells, leading to cellular swelling and edema.

Choice B reason: 10% dextrose in water is a hypertonic solution, which means it has a higher concentration of solutes than the blood plasma. It can cause fluid to shift from the cells into the blood vessels, leading to cellular shrinkage and dehydration.

Choice C reason: 5% dextrose and half-normal saline solution is a hypertonic solution, which has the same effects as choice B. The dextrose increases the osmolarity of the solution, while the half-normal saline provides some electrolytes.

Choice D reason: Lactated Ringer's solution is an isotonic solution, which means it has the same concentration of solutes as the blood plasma. It maintains fluid balance and provides electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and lactate. It is commonly used for fluid resuscitation, dehydration, and acidosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Blanched abdomen means that the skin of the abdomen is pale or white, which can indicate shock or blood loss. However, it is not a specific sign of appendiceal perforation, as it can occur in other conditions as well.

Choice B reason: This is a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Sudden decrease in abdominal pain means that the pain that was previously felt in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen has subsided or disappeared. This can indicate that the appendix has ruptured and released the pus and bacteria into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. This is a serious complication that requires immediate surgical intervention.

Choice C reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Absent Rovsing's sign means that there is no pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen when the left lower quadrant is palpated. This is a sign of appendicitis, not appendiceal perforation, as it indicates that the appendix is inflamed and irritated by the pressure.

Choice D reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Fever means that the body temperature is above the normal range, which can indicate infection or inflammation. However, it is not a specific sign of appendiceal perforation, as it can occur in other conditions as well.

A. Call the primary provider and report that the client may be obstructed. B. Position the client supine and insert an NG tube. C. Administer a fleet enema as prescribed and remain with the client. D. Contact the primary provider promptly and report these signs of perforation.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not the best response because it does not accurately describe the client's condition. Obstruction is a possible complication of diverticulitis, but it is not indicated by fever and abdominal rigidity. Obstruction is more likely to cause symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, constipation, and abdominal distension.

Choice B reason: This is not the best response because it can worsen the client's condition. Positioning the client supine and inserting an NG tube are interventions for gastric outlet obstruction, not diverticulitis. An NG tube can increase the risk of infection and perforation in the inflamed colon. Supine position can also increase the pressure on the abdomen and cause more pain and discomfort.

Choice C reason: This is not the best response because it can be harmful to the client. Administering a fleet enema is contraindicated for diverticulitis, as it can cause more inflammation, bleeding, or perforation in the colon. A fleet enema is a type of laxative that contains sodium phosphate and is used to relieve constipation or prepare for colonoscopy.

Choice D reason: This is the best response because it is the most appropriate and urgent action for the client. Contacting the primary provider promptly and reporting these signs of perforation is essential for the client's safety and treatment. Perforation is a life-threatening complication of diverticulitis, where the colon wall ruptures and causes peritonitis, which is inflammation of the abdominal cavity. Perforation can cause symptoms such as fever, abdominal rigidity, tenderness, and rebound pain. Perforation requires immediate surgical intervention and antibiotic therapy.

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A physician orders an isotonic IV solution for a client. Which solution should the nurse plan to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a child who is admitted with suspected acute appendicitis. Which of the following manifestations should indicate to the nurse that the child's appendix is perforated?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client admitted with acute diverticulitis has experienced a sudden increase in temperature and reports a sudden onset of extreme abdominal tenderness. The nurse's rapid assessment reveals that the client's abdomen is uncharacteristically rigid on palpation. What is the nurse's best response?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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