A physician orders an isotonic IV solution for a client. Which solution should the nurse plan to administer?

Half-normal saline solution

10% dextrose in water

5% dextrose and half-normal saline solution

Lactated Ringer's solution

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Half-normal saline solution is a hypotonic solution, which means it has a lower concentration of solutes than the blood plasma. It can cause fluid to shift from the blood vessels into the cells, leading to cellular swelling and edema.

Choice B reason: 10% dextrose in water is a hypertonic solution, which means it has a higher concentration of solutes than the blood plasma. It can cause fluid to shift from the cells into the blood vessels, leading to cellular shrinkage and dehydration.

Choice C reason: 5% dextrose and half-normal saline solution is a hypertonic solution, which has the same effects as choice B. The dextrose increases the osmolarity of the solution, while the half-normal saline provides some electrolytes.

Choice D reason: Lactated Ringer's solution is an isotonic solution, which means it has the same concentration of solutes as the blood plasma. It maintains fluid balance and provides electrolytes such as sodium, potassium, calcium, and lactate. It is commonly used for fluid resuscitation, dehydration, and acidosis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Blanched abdomen means that the skin of the abdomen is pale or white, which can indicate shock or blood loss. However, it is not a specific sign of appendiceal perforation, as it can occur in other conditions as well.

Choice B reason: This is a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Sudden decrease in abdominal pain means that the pain that was previously felt in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen has subsided or disappeared. This can indicate that the appendix has ruptured and released the pus and bacteria into the peritoneal cavity, causing peritonitis. This is a serious complication that requires immediate surgical intervention.

Choice C reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Absent Rovsing's sign means that there is no pain in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen when the left lower quadrant is palpated. This is a sign of appendicitis, not appendiceal perforation, as it indicates that the appendix is inflamed and irritated by the pressure.

Choice D reason: This is not a correct manifestation of appendiceal perforation. Fever means that the body temperature is above the normal range, which can indicate infection or inflammation. However, it is not a specific sign of appendiceal perforation, as it can occur in other conditions as well.

A. The client quit smoking 6 months ago. B. The client has a strong family history of obesity. C. The client drinks six to eight cans of beer daily. D. The client has poorly controlled type 2 diabetes.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: The client quitting smoking 6 months ago is not a factor that would exclude her from being an appropriate surgical candidate. In fact, smoking cessation is a requirement for bariatric surgery, as smoking increases the risk of complications such as infection, thrombosis, and poor wound healing.

Choice B reason: The client having a strong family history of obesity is not a factor that would exclude her from being an appropriate surgical candidate. Family history is one of the genetic factors that can contribute to obesity, but it does not determine the eligibility for bariatric surgery. Other factors such as BMI, comorbidities, lifestyle, and motivation are more important.

Choice C reason: The client drinking six to eight cans of beer daily is a factor that would exclude her from being an appropriate surgical candidate. Alcohol abuse is a contraindication for bariatric surgery, as it can cause liver damage, malnutrition, dehydration, and addiction transfer. The client would need to abstain from alcohol for at least 6 months before and after the surgery.

Choice D reason: The client having poorly controlled type 2 diabetes is not a factor that would exclude her from being an appropriate surgical candidate. Type 2 diabetes is one of the comorbidities that can qualify a client for bariatric surgery, as it can improve or resolve after the surgery. However, the client would need to have a good glycemic control before the surgery to reduce the risk of complications.

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A physician orders an isotonic IV solution for a client. Which solution should the nurse plan to administer?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a child who is admitted with suspected acute appendicitis. Which of the following manifestations should indicate to the nurse that the child's appendix is perforated?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

An adult female client has a body mass index of 34.5 kg/m2 and has expressed interest in bariatric surgery. What characteristic of the client's health status may exclude her from being an appropriate surgical candidate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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