A patient with peptic ulcer disease is scheduled to receive doses of pantoprazole IV and sucralfate PO before breakfast at 0800. The patient reports experiencing heartburn. The nurse brings the scheduled medications. Which action should the nurse take?
Provide a PRN dose of antacid along with the scheduled medications.
Instruct the client to take the dose of sucralfate PO while eating breakfast.
Hold the dose of IV pantoprazole until the client has finished eating breakfast.
Administer both of the medications before breakfast as scheduled.
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason:
Providing a PRN dose of antacid along with the scheduled medications is not the best option. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of other medications, including sucralfate and pantoprazole. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier on the ulcer site, and pantoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that reduces stomach acid production. Adding an antacid could alter the effectiveness of these medications.
Choice B Reason:
Instructing the client to take the dose of sucralfate PO while eating breakfast is incorrect. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, typically one hour before meals, to ensure it can effectively coat the ulcer site and provide protection. Taking it with food can reduce its efficacy.
Choice C Reason:
Holding the dose of IV pantoprazole until the client has finished eating breakfast is not advisable. Pantoprazole is most effective when taken before meals, as it helps to reduce stomach acid production in anticipation of food intake. Delaying the dose could result in less effective acid suppression and increased discomfort for the patient.
Choice D Reason:
Administering both of the medications before breakfast as scheduled is the correct action. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach to form a protective barrier on the ulcer site, and pantoprazole should be administered before meals to reduce stomach acid production. This timing ensures both medications work optimally to manage the patient’s peptic ulcer disease and alleviate symptoms like heartburn.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason
Morphine, an opioid analgesic, is commonly prescribed for severe pain management, such as in cases of metastatic cancer. One of the well-known side effects of morphine is constipation. This occurs because opioids slow down gastrointestinal motility, leading to harder and less frequent stools. Therefore, it is crucial for patients taking morphine to monitor their bowel movements and use stool softeners or laxatives as needed to prevent constipation. This choice indicates that the client understands the importance of managing this common side effect, which can significantly impact their comfort and quality of life.
Choice B Reason
Grapefruit juice is known to interact with various medications by inhibiting the cytochrome P450 3A4 (CYP3A4) enzyme in the liver, which can lead to increased blood levels of certain drugs. However, morphine is primarily metabolized by the liver enzyme UGT2B7, not CYP3A4. Therefore, grapefruit juice does not significantly affect morphine metabolism. This choice reflects a misunderstanding of the specific interactions relevant to morphine.
Choice C Reason
Taking a benzodiazepine at the same time as morphine can be dangerous due to the risk of additive central nervous system (CNS) depression. Both morphine and benzodiazepines can cause sedation, respiratory depression, and impaired cognitive and motor functions. Concurrent use increases the risk of severe side effects, including potentially life-threatening respiratory depression. This choice indicates a lack of understanding of the risks associated with combining these medications.
Choice D Reason
While it is important to monitor for signs of agitation and insomnia, these are not the primary concerns associated with morphine use. Morphine is more likely to cause sedation rather than agitation, and insomnia is not a common side effect. This choice does not reflect a comprehensive understanding of the primary side effects and necessary precautions related to morphine use.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason:
Administering a PRN dose of an antianxiety drug might seem like a reasonable action if the tremors are related to anxiety. However, without a clear indication that anxiety is the cause of the tremors, this action could mask the underlying issue and delay appropriate treatment. It is essential to identify the root cause of the tremors before administering any medication.
Choice B reason:
Obtaining orthostatic blood pressure readings is a useful assessment for determining if the client has orthostatic hypotension, which can cause dizziness and fainting. However, this action is not directly related to the complaint of hand tremors. While it is a good practice to monitor vital signs, it does not address the immediate concern of tremors caused by pregabalin.
Choice C reason:
Notifying the healthcare provider is the most appropriate action. Tremors can be a side effect of pregabalin12. The healthcare provider needs to be informed to evaluate the severity of the side effect and decide whether to adjust the medication dosage or switch to an alternative treatment. This ensures that the client receives the most appropriate care and avoids potential complications.
Choice D reason:
Collecting a capillary glucose level is important for clients with diabetes or those at risk of hypoglycemia or hyperglycemia. However, there is no indication in the scenario that the client has diabetes or that blood glucose levels are related to the tremors. Therefore, this action is not directly relevant to the client’s current complaint.
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