A patient with chronic renal failure has an occluded arteriovenous fistula, and routine hemodialysis is delayed. However, the patient's serum potassium level is 6.0 mEq/L. What should the nurse expect to be prescribed for this patient? Select all that apply.
Sodium bicarbonate.
Dextrose 10%.
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate).
Insulin.
Correct Answer : A,C,D
A, C, and D.
Choice A rationale:
The administration of sodium bicarbonate helps to correct acidosis, which can occur in chronic renal failure due to the accumulation of metabolic waste products in the absence of effective kidney function.
Choice C rationale:
Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate) is used to treat hyperkalemia, which is common in chronic renal failure due to impaired potassium excretion by the kidneys.
Choice D rationale:
Insulin can be prescribed to treat hyperkalemia by promoting the uptake of potassium into cells, thereby reducing the serum potassium level. Choice B and E rationale: Dextrose 10% and furosemide (Lasix) are not appropriate treatments for hyperkalemia. Dextrose 10% is a sugar solution and does not impact potassium levels, while furosemide is a loop diuretic that primarily affects sodium and water excretion, not potassium.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Narcotics are not known to directly cause hypokalemia. Their main effects are related to pain relief and central nervous system depression.
Choice B rationale:
Thiazide diuretics can cause potassium loss in the urine, leading to hypokalemia. These diuretics work by inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule, which can lead to potassium excretion as well.
Choice C rationale:
Corticosteroids can cause sodium and water retention but are not typically associated with significant potassium abnormalities.
Choice D rationale:
Muscle relaxers are not known to cause hypokalemia. They primarily act on the neuromuscular junction and do not directly impact potassium levels.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
The correct answer isd. Assess for indications of pulmonary embolism.
Choice A rationale:
Administering a sedative is not appropriate as the priority intervention. Sedatives can depress respiratory function, which is already compromised in this patient.
Choice B rationale:
Preparing for mechanical ventilation might be necessary if the patient’s condition worsens, but it is not the immediate priority. The priority is to identify the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Choice C rationale:
Massaging the calf area for tenderness is not relevant in this context. While calf tenderness can be a sign of deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can lead to pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority is to assess for pulmonary embolism directly.
Choice D rationale:
Assessing for indications of pulmonary embolism is the priority because the patient’s symptoms (shortness of breath, chest pain, recent use of birth control pills, smoking history, and abnormal ABG values) strongly suggest a pulmonary embolism.Early identification and treatment are crucial to prevent further complications.
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