A patient who is newly diagnosed with erosive esophagitis secondary to gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) reports to the home health nurse that there has been only a minimal reduction in symptoms after taking lansoprazole PO for one full week.
Which action should the nurse take?
Auscultate the patient's bowel sounds and measure the abdominal girth.
Confirm that the patient is taking the medication one hour after meals.
Notify the healthcare provider that the patient may need a change in dosage.
Advise the patient that healing typically takes several weeks to occur.
The Correct Answer is D
The correct answer is Choice D.
Choice A rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds and measuring abdominal girth are not directly related to the management of erosive esophagitis and GERD symptoms. These actions are more pertinent to assessing gastrointestinal motility and distension, not the effectiveness of lansoprazole.
Choice B rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that should be taken before meals to reduce stomach acid production effectively. Confirming that the patient is taking the medication before meals could help optimize its efficacy but is not the most immediate step.
Choice C rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider about a potential need for a dosage change may be considered if symptoms persist. However, since healing with proton pump inhibitors can take several weeks, this action may be premature after only one week of use.
Choice D rationale: It is appropriate to inform the patient that healing of erosive esophagitis and symptom relief from GERD can take several weeks with lansoprazole. This education helps set realistic expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D"]
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A, C, and D.
Choice A rationale:
The patient’s oxygen saturation is at 94%, which is just below the normal range of 95-100% for healthy adults breathing room air. Administering oxygen 2 to 4 liters to maintain oxygen saturation at or above 95% is a standard intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation.
Choice B rationale:
A stat ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan is typically ordered for suspected pulmonary embolism, which is not indicated by the patient’s current data. The patient’s symptoms do not specifically suggest a V/Q mismatch that would necessitate this diagnostic test.
Choice C rationale:
A chest x-ray is a common diagnostic tool for evaluating the lungs and heart, especially when a patient presents with symptoms that may indicate respiratory or cardiac issues. Given the patient’s temperature and heart rate, which are slightly elevated, a chest x-ray can help identify any potential underlying conditions.
Choice D rationale:
Ordering a CBC, BMP, and blood cultures can help identify the cause of the patient’s fever and tachycardia. These tests provide valuable information about the patient’s immune response, electrolyte balance, kidney function, and whether there is a bacterial infection.
Choice E rationale:
While sending sputum for culture and sensitivity could be helpful if a respiratory infection is suspected, the patient’s data does not strongly indicate a respiratory infection as the primary issue. Therefore, this test may not be the most immediate need.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Incorrect. Suppressor T-cells (also known as regulatory T-cells) play a role in regulating the immune response, but their proliferation is not the primary mechanism by which HIV suppresses the immune system. In fact, HIV can disrupt the function of suppressor T-cells, leading to an impaired ability to control immune responses.
Choice B rationale:
Incorrect. Cytotoxic T-cells (also known as CD8+ T-cells) are important for killing infected cells, but their deficiency is not the direct cause of immune suppression in HIV. However, HIV can indirectly lead to a deficiency of cytotoxic T-cells by disrupting their production and function.
Choice C rationale:
Incorrect. B-lymphocytes produce antibodies, and IgM is an early antibody produced in response to infection. However, an increase in B-lymphocytes and IgM is not characteristic of HIV infection. In fact, HIV can impair B-cell function, leading to decreased antibody production.
Choice D rationale:
Correct. HIV primarily targets and destroys helper T-cells (also known as CD4+ T-cells). These cells play a crucial role in coordinating the immune response by activating other immune cells, such as cytotoxic T-cells and B-cells. The depletion of helper T-cells leads to a progressive weakening of the immune system, rendering the body vulnerable to opportunistic infections and cancers.
Specific mechanisms of CD4+ T-cell destruction by HIV:
Direct infection and lysis: HIV can directly infect CD4+ T-cells and replicate within them, eventually leading to the death of the infected cells.
CD4+ T-cell apoptosis: HIV can induce programmed cell death (apoptosis) in CD4+ T-cells through various mechanisms, including the activation of pro-apoptotic pathways and the disruption of anti-apoptotic signals.
Immune dysregulation: HIV infection can also dysregulate the immune system, leading to chronic inflammation and immune activation. This can further contribute to CD4+ T-cell depletion and dysfunction.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
