A patient who has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy has had surgery to correct an abdominal hernia. The nurse keeps in mind that which potential effect of this medication may have the most impact on the patient's recovery?
Hypotension
Muscle weakness
Osteoporosis
Delayed wound healing
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because hypotension is not a common effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy. Corticosteroids can cause fluid retention and sodium retention, which can lead to hypertension, not hypotension.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because muscle weakness is not the most impactful effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy on the patient's recovery. Corticosteroids can cause muscle wasting and loss of muscle mass, which can affect the patient's mobility and strength, but not as much as delayed wound healing.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because osteoporosis is not the most impactful effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy on the patient's recovery. Corticosteroids can cause bone loss and increased risk of fractures, which can affect the patient's bone health and stability, but not as much as delayed wound healing.
Choice D reason: This is correct because delayed wound healing is the most impactful effect of long-term corticosteroid therapy on the patient's recovery. Corticosteroids can impair the inflammatory response and the immune system, which can slow down the healing process and increase the risk of infection. This can affect the patient's recovery time and quality.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A 32-year-old client who has benign breast disease does not have a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Benign breast disease is not associated with an increased risk of breast cancer or thromboembolic events. However, the nurse should advise the client to perform regular breast self-examinations and report any changes.
Choice B reason: A 26-year-old client who has migraine headaches at the start of each menstrual cycle does not have a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Migraine headaches that are related to the menstrual cycle may actually improve with oral contraceptives, as they can regulate the hormonal fluctuations. However, the nurse should monitor the client for any signs of stroke or hypertension, as these are rare but serious complications of oral contraceptives.
Choice C reason: A 28-year-old client who has a history of pelvic inflammatory disease does not have a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Pelvic inflammatory disease is an infection of the reproductive organs that can cause infertility, chronic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. Oral contraceptives can reduce the risk of pelvic inflammatory disease by creating a thick cervical mucus that prevents the entry of bacteria. However, the nurse should remind the client that oral contraceptives do not protect against sexually transmitted infections, and that barrier methods should be used in addition.
Choice D reason: A 38-year-old client who reports smoking one pack of cigarettes every day has a contraindication for receiving oral contraceptives. Smoking increases the risk of cardiovascular diseases, such as myocardial infarction, stroke, and peripheral vascular disease. Oral contraceptives also increase the risk of these diseases, especially in women older than 35 years. Therefore, the combination of smoking and oral contraceptives can have a synergistic effect and cause serious harm. The nurse should recommend other methods of contraception for this client, such as intrauterine devices, implants, or injections.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is incorrect because the dosage is given in the prescription as 500 mg, which indicates the amount of the drug to be administered.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the route is given in the prescription as PO, which stands for per os or by mouth, which indicates how the drug is to be administered.
Choice C reason: This is correct because the medication is not given in the prescription, which is the name of the drug to be administered. The nurse should ask the provider to clarify the medication name and spell it out if necessary.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the time/frequency is given in the prescription as BID, which stands for bis in die or twice a day, which indicates when and how often the drug is to be administered.
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