A patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) reporting right facial weakness. The nurse understands that a patient suffering from Bell's Palsy will exhibit which assessment findings related to the cranial nerve involvement?

painful areas on the affected side following 3 branches of the nerve

decreased visual acuity when tested with Snellen Chart

unilateral upper and lower facial weaknesses including forehead

facial dropping, with arm and leg weakness on the affected side

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A) Painful areas on the affected side following 3 branches of the nerve:
This is not typically a feature of Bell's Palsy. Bell's Palsy is primarily a motor dysfunction of the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), leading to facial weakness. The pain associated with Bell's Palsy, if present, is usually mild and localized to the jaw, behind the ear, or along the jawline rather than along all three branches of the trigeminal nerve (cranial nerve V), which controls sensation in the face. Therefore, this choice is not consistent with the typical presentation of Bell's Palsy.

B) Decreased visual acuity when tested with Snellen Chart:
Decreased visual acuity is not a primary feature of Bell's Palsy. This condition specifically affects facial nerve function, which controls the muscles of facial expression, including those responsible for closing the eyes tightly. However, Bell's Palsy does not typically result in visual changes such as decreased visual acuity or problems with vision itself. Decreased vision would be more indicative of an issue with the optic nerve (cranial nerve II) or other eye-related conditions.

C) Unilateral upper and lower facial weakness including forehead:
This is the hallmark sign of Bell's Palsy. The facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) controls the muscles of the face, and when it becomes affected by Bell's Palsy, both the upper and lower parts of the face on one side can be weak or paralyzed. Importantly, Bell's Palsy causes inability to wrinkle the forehead, which distinguishes it from stroke, where the forehead is typically spared because the upper part of the facial muscles receives bilateral input from the brain. Thus, both upper and lower facial weakness, including inability to raise the eyebrow (forehead), is characteristic of Bell's Palsy.

D) Facial dropping, with arm and leg weakness on the affected side:
Facial drooping is a common symptom of Bell's Palsy, but arm and leg weakness is not associated with it. Arm and leg weakness on the same side would be more suggestive of a stroke affecting the cerebrovascular system, rather than a peripheral nerve issue like Bell's Palsy. Bell's Palsy is confined to facial nerve dysfunction and does not cause weakness in the limbs.

Nursing Test Bank

Quiz #1: RN Exams Pharmacology Exams Quiz #2: RN Exams Medical-Surgical Exams Quiz #3: RN Exams Fundamentals Exams Quiz #4: RN Exams Maternal-Newborn Exams Quiz #5: RN Exams Anatomy and Physiology Exams Quiz #6: RN Exams Obstetrics and Pediatrics Exams Quiz #7: RN Exams Fluid and Electrolytes Exams Quiz #8: RN Exams Community Health Exams Quiz #9: RN Exams Promoting Health across the lifespan Exams Quiz #10: RN Exams Multidimensional care Exams

Get 100+ Naxlex Exit Exams for $79 Try Naxlex NCLEX-RN (14 Day Free-Trial)

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Quiz #1: Naxlex RN Comprehensive online practice 2019 B with NGN Quiz #2: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Quiz #3: Naxlex RN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 Exit Exam A Quiz #4: Naxlex HESI Exit LPN Exam Quiz #5: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor PN 2020 Quiz #6: Naxlex VATI PN Comprehensive Predictor 2020 Quiz #8: Naxlex PN Comprehensive Predictor 2023 - Exam 1 Quiz #10: Naxlex HESI PN Exit exam Quiz #11: Naxlex HESI PN EXIT Exam 2

Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A) Urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr:
This is a positive outcome during fluid resuscitation for burn patients. Adequate urine output is a key indicator of proper renal perfusion and fluid balance. A urine output of 0.5-1 mL/kg/hr is considered optimal for burn patients during the first 24-48 hours of resuscitation. It suggests that the kidneys are receiving sufficient blood flow and that the patient is responding appropriately to the fluids being administered.

B) Serum sodium level 149 mEq/L (normal 135-145):
A serum sodium level of 149 mEq/L is high and indicates hypernatremia, which is a common complication of excessive fluid resuscitation, particularly with the use of crystalloids. Hypernatremia can lead to cerebral edema, altered mental status, and other severe complications. Therefore, this finding would suggest improper fluid management and would not be considered a positive outcome.

C) Blood pressure 82/54:
A blood pressure of 82/54 is hypotensive, which is concerning in a burn patient. Hypotension indicates inadequate tissue perfusion, potentially leading to shock and organ failure. While low blood pressure may occur in the initial stages of resuscitation due to the rapid shifts in fluid, a sustained low blood pressure is not a positive outcome.

D) Heart rate 124 beats per minute:
A heart rate of 124 beats per minute is tachycardic and suggests that the patient is compensating for hypovolemia or inadequate circulatory volume, possibly due to insufficient fluid resuscitation. Although an elevated heart rate may occur as a compensatory mechanism in the initial stages of burn resuscitation, sustained tachycardia indicates ongoing volume depletion or inadequate perfusion and is not an ideal outcome.

A. Heart rate of 130 beats per minute B. PH of 7.21 (normal 7.35-7.45) C. Serum potassium 5.7 mEq/L (normal 3,5-5.3) D. Platelet count 200,000 (normal 150,000-450,000)

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Heart rate of 130 beats per minute
A heart rate of 130 beats per minute is tachycardia, which is often a compensatory response to injury, particularly in cases of trauma, blood loss, or shock. It is common in the initial phase after trauma as the body attempts to compensate for decreased blood volume or oxygen delivery. However, tachycardia alone is not typically fatal in the immediate post-injury period and can often be managed.

B) pH of 7.21 (normal 7.35–7.45)
A pH of 7.21 indicates acidosis, which is life-threatening and typically arises from shock, blood loss, or severe trauma. Acidosis occurs when the body is unable to compensate for lactic acid or other metabolic byproducts that accumulate due to insufficient oxygen delivery to tissues. In the case of a gunshot wound to the abdomen, there is a high risk of internal bleeding, hypoperfusion, and hypoxia, all of which can lead to metabolic acidosis. Severe acidosis can cause organ failure, particularly affecting the heart, kidneys, and brain.

C) Serum potassium 5.7 mEq/L (normal 3.5–5.3)
A serum potassium of 5.7 mEq/L is elevated, but it is moderately high and not typically life-threatening unless it reaches much higher levels (e.g., >6.0 mEq/L), which can cause cardiac arrhythmias. Elevated potassium can occur due to cellular injury (e.g., muscle trauma or rhabdomyolysis), but it would need to be corrected to prevent complications like arrhythmias.

D) Platelet count 200,000 (normal 150,000–450,000)
A platelet count of 200,000 is within the normal range (150,000–450,000) and does not indicate a problem with coagulation. The blood loss and the NG tube hemorrhage mentioned in the scenario suggest that the patient may be at risk for bleeding, but a platelet count in the normal range suggests that the body’s ability to form clots is likely intact.

View Question and Answer

Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.

Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today

A patient presents to the Emergency Department (ED) reporting right facial weakness. The nurse understands that a patient suffering from Bell's Palsy will exhibit which assessment findings related to the cranial nerve involvement?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for patient with severe, major burns who is receiving fluid resuscitation per protocol. Which of the following assessments indicate positive outcome?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient is to receive a continuous infusion of Diltiazem at 2.5 mg hr for Atrial fibrillation, The medication is supplied 125 mg of Diltlazem in 125 mL of IV fluid. At what rate should the nurse set the IV pump? (round to the nearest tenth)

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with acute coronary syndrome who has just returned to the nursing unit following an intracoronary stent insertion. Which action is the priority at this time?

The client who has had open heart surgery for a mitral valve replacement with a mechanical valve is preparing for discharge. Which information should the nurse include in the teaching?

The nurse should implement which safety consideration for a patient when administering oral radioactive iodine for thyroid cancer? The patient should:

The nurse is providing education to the client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (MS) about baclofen. What statement made by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client understood the education? The client states ‘’I will

A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of bladder cancer Which of the following interventions should the nurse take to promote comfort?

A nurse is caring for a client who is to start chemotherapy treatment advanced breast cancer. She tells the nurse she is worried about the adverse effects of the treatment. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

The nurse is performing an assessment of a client admitted with left sided heart failure. Which dinical manifestation(s) would the nurse expect to identify? SELECT ALL THAT APPLY)