A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. How should the nurse explain this condition to the patient?

An ectopic pregnancy does not need major treatment and can be delivered vaginally."

"An ectopic pregnancy involves a fertilized ovum outside the uterus that cannot be transferred to the uterus."

"An ectopic pregnancy involves a cancerous fertilized ovum in either fallopian tube."

"An ectopic pregnancy involves a fertilized ovum in the vagina

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A. "An ectopic pregnancy does not need major treatment and can be delivered vaginally." This statement is incorrect. An ectopic pregnancy involves the fertilized ovum implanting outside the uterus, most commonly in a fallopian tube, which poses serious risks to the mother. The pregnancy cannot be carried to term, and it requires prompt medical intervention, such as medication or surgery, to prevent life-threatening complications.
B. "An ectopic pregnancy involves a fertilized ovum outside the uterus that cannot be transferred to the uterus." This is an accurate explanation of an ectopic pregnancy. The fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, most commonly in the fallopian tubes, and cannot develop into a viable pregnancy. The condition requires immediate treatment to prevent tube rupture and internal bleeding.
C. "An ectopic pregnancy involves a cancerous fertilized ovum in either fallopian tube." This is incorrect. An ectopic pregnancy is not cancerous. It refers to a pregnancy where the fertilized ovum implants in an abnormal location outside the uterus, most commonly the fallopian tubes, not involving cancerous growth.
D. "An ectopic pregnancy involves a fertilized ovum in the vagina." This statement is incorrect. An ectopic pregnancy occurs when the fertilized ovum implants outside the uterus, but it does not implant in the vagina. The condition most commonly involves the fallopian tubes but can also occur in other locations such as the cervix, ovary, or abdominal cavity.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. The patient's blood pressure dropped from 160/120 to 130/90. Hydralazine is an antihypertensive medication used to lower blood pressure in conditions such as eclampsia. A reduction in blood pressure indicates that the medication is achieving its intended effect of controlling hypertension, reducing the risk of complications like stroke or organ damage.

B. The patient states that her headache is gone. While headaches are a symptom of severe hypertension, their resolution does not directly confirm the effectiveness of hydralazine. Other factors, such as pain relief or improved postpartum recovery, could contribute to headache relief.

C. The patient's postoperative weight has dropped from 155 to 144 pounds. Postpartum weight loss is expected due to fluid shifts and loss of pregnancy-related fluids, but it is not a direct measure of hydralazine’s effectiveness. The medication does not act as a diuretic or weight-loss agent.

D. The patient has had no seizures since delivery. While hydralazine helps lower blood pressure, preventing seizures in eclamptic patients is primarily managed with magnesium sulfate, not hydralazine. The absence of seizures is important but does not indicate the specific effectiveness of this antihypertensive medication.

A. Tell the client to take a warm shower, rest, and call back tomorrow. B. Schedule an appointment for the client at the clinic tomorrow. C. Instruct the client to drink cranberry juice and call if she experiences a fever. D. Instruct the client to go to labor triage at the hospital for evaluation.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Tell the client to take a warm shower, rest, and call back tomorrow. While rest and hydration can sometimes help with mild discomfort, this client’s symptoms—pelvic pressure, low back pain, abdominal pain, and increased vaginal discharge—are concerning for preterm labor and require immediate evaluation. Delaying care could increase the risk of preterm birth.

B. Schedule an appointment for the client at the clinic tomorrow. Waiting until the next day is not appropriate, as preterm labor is an urgent condition that needs immediate assessment to prevent premature birth. Prompt intervention may allow for tocolytic therapy or steroid administration to improve fetal lung maturity if preterm birth is imminent.

C. Instruct the client to drink cranberry juice and call if she experiences a fever. Cranberry juice is sometimes used to prevent urinary tract infections (UTIs), but this client’s symptoms are more indicative of preterm labor rather than an infection. Fever is not a defining symptom of preterm labor, and delaying care could result in complications.

D. Instruct the client to go to labor triage at the hospital for evaluation. This is the best response because the symptoms suggest possible preterm labor. Evaluation in the hospital can include cervical checks, fetal monitoring, and tests such as fetal fibronectin (fFN) to assess the risk of preterm birth. Immediate intervention can help delay labor and improve neonatal outcomes.

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A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy. How should the nurse explain this condition to the patient?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A patient is 3 days post c-section delivery for eclampsia. The client is receiving hydralazine (Apresoline). Which of the following would indicate that the medication is effective?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A client who is 32 weeks pregnant calls the clinic complaining of an increase in vaginal discharge, pelvic pressure, and low back and abdominal pain. Based on this information, what action will the nurse take?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Professor Proctor: Always wants us to be safe while traveling anywhere- especially when coming to class. This is prioritized even over being on time.

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